greek

What does "obey the truth" mean in Romans 2:8?

What does "obey the truth" mean in Romans 2:8?

What does obey the truth mean in this verse?

Romans 2:8

but for those who are self-seeking and do not obey
the truth, but obey unrighteousness, there will be wrath and fury.

What is the truth mentioned in this verse? And, what doe…

How should we understand λαμβάνω in John 5:34?

How should we understand λαμβάνω in John 5:34?

How should we understand λαμβάνω in John 5:34?

ἐγὼ δὲ οὐ παρὰ ἀνθρώπου τὴν μαρτυρίαν λαμβάνω, ἀλλὰ ταῦτα λέγω ἵνα ὑμεῖς σωθῆτε. (John 5:34, NA27)

While many more literal translations translate λαμβάνω as receive or accept:

Not that the…

John 2:4 Translation

John 2:4 Translation

I was wondering if anyone had some insight on the translation of John 2:4. The verse seems to be rendered in a variety of ways, usually either that Jesus says the lack of wine is of no concern to Him, or to both Him and Mary.
All the Greek…

What would be a good translation of ‘poiēma’?

What would be a good translation of ‘poiēma’?

Two verses use the Greek ποίημα (G4161):

For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excu…

How should Ephesians 3:15 be understood?

How should Ephesians 3:15 be understood?

Ephesians 3:15: ἐξ οὗ πᾶσα πατριὰ ἐν οὐρανοῖς καὶ ἐπὶ γῆς ὀνομάζεται (NA 28)
from whom every family in heaven and on earth is named (ESV)

The ESV adds this footnote to the word family: Or from whom all fatherhood; the Greek word patria i…

In the Gospels, Can "Day of:" the Passover – be Interpreted Idiomatically?

In the Gospels, Can "Day of:" the Passover – be Interpreted Idiomatically?


Related:

The Correct Research Methodology To Substantiate If an Expression is an Idiom?

In the early church, was the Last Supper Considered a Passover Feast?

The meaning of παρασκευή (‘day of preparation’)

Luke 22:16 – Did Jesus say he was not going to eat THAT Passover?

Do Idioms Used in the Crucifixion Narrative Resolve the “3 Day/3 Night” Objections?


1. Question:

Is “day of” an idiomatic expression, meaning “general time”?

Why does Luke say the day of the Passover came, when it had not?

Is there any historical evidence, or grammatical rules, that may suggest that this phrase was often used imprecisely, idiomatically?

  • Then came the Day of: …
  • Then came the Feast of: …

  1. Is it possible that: “It’s the Feast of Passover!” – may have have been understood the same way that we understand: “It’s Christmas Time!”, (a generalization, not necessarily the actual day);

  2. Are Verb Tenses Significant? (“Then came:“, Aorist, Imperfect, etc.)

  3. Are there any historical texts, that either confirm or refute this argument?


2. The Text:

NASB, Luke 22:1 – Now the Feast of Unleavened Bread, which is called the Passover, was approaching.

Passover Came:

NASB, Luke 22:7 – Then came, (Ἦλθεν, Aorist Tense) the day

But It Had Not, Yet? :

NASB, Luke 23:17 – Now [Pilate] was obliged to release to them (at / κατὰ) the feast one prisoner.

John 19:31 – Then the Jews, because it was, (Imperfect Tense) the day of preparation, … for a Great Day was that Sabbath.


3. Research in Progress – Feel Free to Use:

Homilies on Matthew (Chrysostom), Homily 81 – And this one calls the day before the feast of unleavened bread, Luke 22:7 speaking of the time when they came to Him, and another says on this wise, Then came the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed; by the word came, meaning this, it was near, it was at the doors, making mention plainly of that evening. For they began with the evening, wherefore also each adds, when the passover was killed.

Note: Although Augustine, (354-439) cited Chrysostom as an authority – I feel that what Chrysostom, (349-407) wrote is not conclusive because those works were not contemporaneous with the New Testament.