Is there theological significance in the word ‘Allelujah’ only occurring 4 times in the entire Christian Greek Scriptures, all of them in Rev. ch 19?

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I would expect more than a few Allelujahs bursting from the lips of overjoyed Christians when they realised Jesus had arisen in triumph from the grave, but that is not recorded in the gospel accounts or the book of Acts. Then, when I went to the concordance for the NIV to see how often this word, or ‘Hallelujah’, occurs in the Hebrew Scriptures, it just wasn’t there at all! Yet the great Hallel of the Psalms is legendary. This astonishes me, also given how glibly the word trips off the tongues of myriad Protestants. It is also sung frequently in hymns and songs of praise, especially modern ones, and I suppose Catholics use the word in worship also.

However, the context for the four times Allelujah is recorded in the Bible is that of heaven’s citizens rejoicing at the destruction and eternal torment of Babylon the Great. Only after that evil system receives God’s wrathful judgment does heaven reverberate with an explosion of joy in praise of what God has just done. Now, please note, I am NOT giving any consideration in this question as to what Babylon the Great represents. I wish to avoid that vexed question like the plague (for now). But when God climaxes his plagues on Babylon the Great by hurling her into the abyss, the reason for rejoicing in heaven is stated –

“Allelujah; Salvation, and glory, and honour and power, unto the Lord
our God: for true and righteous are his judgments; for he hath judged
the great whore, which did corrupt the earth with her fornication, and
hath avenged the blood of his servants at her hand. And again they
said Allelujah. And her smoke rose up for ever and ever.” Rev. 19:1-3

I note the initial reason is the eternal torment of Babylon the Great, now cast into the abyss. The next reason is the omnipotent God reigning (vs. 6). The third reason is the time of the marriage of the Lamb having arrived (vs. 7). What theological significance does this point to?

Is it theologically significant that while Jesus was on earth, he is never recorded as saying ‘Allelujah’?

I am asking these questions of all Christians who use the Allelujah word frequently in either their worship or their everyday life. I may be wrong, but I suspect the more charismatically inclined groups are, the more often they will exclaim ‘Allelujah’, so if those people would particularly explain their “Allelujah theology” (if there is such a thing!) I would be interested in that.