How do the Greek and Hebrew read about Acts 1:8? (Finis J. Dake)
How do the Greek and Hebrew read about Acts 1:8? (Finis J. Dake)
How do the Greek and Hebrew read about Acts 1:8? (Finis J. Dake)
Greek Words About Sanctification The New Testament Greek word for “sanctify” is “hagiazo”. “Hagiazo” means 2 “consecrate, dedicate…purify” 1 or “to set apart…
LANGUAGE OF THE NEW TESTAMENT KOINE GREEK: Koine Greek (common Language) was the street language spoken in homes and shops. It had a brogue…
7 tips for first-semester Biblical Greek: Tip #1: Don’t depend on your teacher or your textbook: Everything depends on you! //NO-o-o-o Pack Rat [03/15/2015…
In 1 Corinthians 13:10 – Will “The Perfect” actually come to everyone – all at the same time?
Or, does the underlying Greek indicate a subjective experience? Could it be a subjective experience, (like dying and going to heaven, or Spiritual Maturity)?
Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance, ὅταν – as long as, whenever; From hote and an; whenever (implying hypothesis or more or less uncertainty); also causatively (conjunctionally) inasmuch as — as long (soon) as, that, + till, when(-soever), while.
1 Corinthians 13:10 – and whenever | ὅταν the perfect might come | ἔλθῃ – Subjunctive, the partial will fall away.
1 Corinthians 13:12 – “… presently, I know partially, and then I will intimately know, just fully just as I also have been fully known.”
Closely Related:
– 1 Corinthians 13:10 – What does Paul mean by “Completeness”?
– 1 Corinthians 13:10 – What does “The Perfect” Refer to?
– 1 Corinthians 13:10 – What Will Cease when “The Perfect” Comes?
– 1 Corinthians 13:8 – What is the Significance of the Intransitive verb “παύσονται”?
– 1 Corinthians 13:9-10 – What Does “ἐκ μέρους” Mean?
– 1 Corinthians 13:9 – What does “Out From” Mean?
John 1:5 reads in the ESV:
The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it.
I recently heard the KJV quoted and was struck by the difference:
And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.
In the same vein as the ESV, other translations offer overpowered, extinguished, quenched, defeated. More in line with the KJV, other choices include understood and perceived.
The Greek for reference (NA28):
καὶ τὸ φῶς ἐν τῇ σκοτίᾳ φαίνει, καὶ ἡ σκοτία αὐτὸ οὐ κατέλαβεν.
BDAG provides options for the meaning of καταλαμβάνω carrying both senses (abbreviations expanded):
1. to make something one’s own, win, attain…
2b. seize with hostile intent, overtake, come upon…
4a. learn about something through process of inquiry…
The lexicon mentions this verse in all three of the entries above, but all I could get out of that without having the referenced works at hand is that it seems to be an open question. How should we decide which of these the author intended?
ὅτι ἦτε ἐν τῷ καιρῷ ἐκείνῳ χωρὶς Χριστοῦ ἀπηλλοτριωμένοι τῆς πολιτείας
τοῦ Ἰσραὴλ καὶ ξένοι τῶν διαθηκῶν τῆς ἐπαγγελίας ἐλπίδα μὴ ἔχοντες καὶ
ἄθεοι ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ
(Eph. 2:12 TR)
Paul makes a statement that “once” the Gentiles, apart from Christ, have no “citizenship” in Israel, and are “strangers from the covenants of promise”-the benefits of citizenship.
Furthermore, in vs 19, he says,
“ἄρα οὖν οὐκέτι ἐστὲ ξένοι καὶ πάροικοι ἀλλὰ συμπολῖται τῶν ἁγίων καὶ
οἰκεῖοι τοῦ θεοῦ” implying, that such rights of citizenship are given in Christ.
Is this an accurate rendering of πολιτείας? Or is Paul simply making a rhetorical comparison, which the syntax allows him to do?
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Related:
– The meaning of παρασκευή (‘day of preparation’)
– Re. The Passover: Why do Christians Assert the Calendar Day Began at Sunset?
– Re. The Crucifixion: Possible to Correlate Timekeeping and Calendar Days?
– Historical Evidence that the Sabbath Rest Began at Sunset – Prohibiting Work During the Preceding Night?
Why is ἐπιφώσκω, (Dawn) translated completely differently in Matthew and Luke?
NASB / Interlinear Matthew 28:1 – Now after the Sabbath, as it began to dawn, (ἐπιφωσκούσῃ) toward the first day of the week, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came to look at the grave.
NASB, Luke 23:54, Interlinear – It was the preparation day, and the Sabbath was about to begin, (dawn?, ἐπέφωσκεν).
In English, the Idiom Seems Counter-Intuitive:
English Analogy: The Dawn of Christmas Eve.
The word, Sabbatismos occurs in the Greek NT only once.
Strongest Strong’s defines it as Sabbath rest; Sabbath observance.
Thayer’s/Strong’s defines it as a Sabbath keeping.
Various English translations render this a special …
Many translations of the Bible use the word “belly” in Philippians 3:19:
Their end is destruction, their god is their belly, and they glory in their shame, with minds set on earthly things. (ESV)
The context of the pass…
A translation of the bible in Spanish (La Biblia Textual – 3ra Edición) translates:
κυριακὸν δεῖπνον = cena dominical (dominical supper) — 1 Corinthians 11:20
and
κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ = día dominical (dominical day) — Revelation 1:10
A marginal note says that these words must be translated as an adjective instead of indicating belonging.
Nevertheless, most of the translations translate these verses as “Lord’s supper” and “Lord’s day”, respectively. Although the Lord’s day is traditionally identified as Sunday, did Paul have in mind the day Sunday on 1 Corinthians 11:20? Is it plausible to translate κυριακὸν and κυριακῇ as an adjective (dominical) instead of indicating belonging?
In Eph. 1:10, the Greek text according to the Textus Receptus states,
Ιʹ εἰς οἰκονομίαν τοῦ πληρώματος τῶν καιρῶν ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι τὰ πάντα ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ τὰ τε ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς καὶ τὰ ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς TR, 1550
According to my understanding, the idea is that everything in heaven and upon earth is recapitulated (from the lemma ἀνακεφαλαιῶ), that is, brought under a single head, “in Christ.” Although it has a few meanings, I understand “in Christ” here to mean, “by being a Christian and being incorporated into the body of Christ.” That being said, I can understand what “everything that/everyone who is upon the earth” («τὰ πάντα…τὰ ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς») refers to, which would be Christians alive on earth (i.e., the Church militant).
However, to what or whom does the phrase “everything that/everyone who is in heaven” («τὰ πάντα…τὰ…ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς») refer? Do the other verses in the epistle shed any light on its meaning or referent?