In John 19:17 did author in-correctly attribute word Golgotha from Hebrew transliteration or correctly from Aramaic? (Differing English Translations)

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An English Bible translation which attributes it as Hebrew:

John 19:17, KJV: And he bearing his cross went forth into a place called the place of a skull, which is called in the Hebrew Golgotha:

As Aramaic:

John 19:17, ESV: and he went out, bearing his own cross, to the place called The Place of a Skull, which in Aramaic is called Golgotha.

Both interprations could not be correct, and the greek seems to imply the author was attributing the word as Hebrew. Which is correct and why?

3 Comments

  • Reply November 23, 2016

    Varnel Watson

    Good Bible text question / discussion? Ricky Grimsley Tony Conger

  • Reply November 23, 2016

    Ricky Grimsley

    Looks like aramaic is the proper translation. Even according to the strongs. Chaldee is aramaic is it not?

  • Reply November 23, 2016

    Varnel Watson

    Chaldee/aramaic – very minor dialect variations

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