Ancient Hebrew Roots of Hanukkah

The Historical Roots of Hanukkah Return to Guide to Hanukkah for Interfaith Families. The story of Hanukkah is a story of a revolution in…

What does "Jealous" mean in Exodus 34:14?

Most translations seem to agree that “Jealous” is the best translation for this passage. For example:

Exodus 34:14 (NASB)
—for you shall not worship any other god, for the LORD, whose name is Jealous, is a jealous God—

However, Young’s Literal Translation chooses to use “Zealous”, instead:

Exodus 34:14 (YLT)
for ye do not bow yourselves to another god — for Jehovah, whose name [is] Zealous, is a zealous God.

What is the original word used here and what does it mean? Is “jealous” a good translation of it or does the original word carry a broader meaning than that?

Does Genesis 19:24 speak of Two Yahwehs?

Does Genesis 19:24 speak of Two Yahwehs?

How is Genesis 19:24 best translated?

Some translations translate it by apparently saying there are two Yahweh(s) involved in the act:

ESV: Then the LORD rained on Sodom and Gomorrah sulfur and fire from the LORD out of …

Why are thighs important?

There is an old question on Christianity.SE which I suggested that it should also be asked here – since we don’t migrate OLD questions. In doing so, I noticed that the OP hasn’t been really active and I suspect that it will never be asked here. With that said:

Genesis 24:2 NIV

One day Abraham said to his oldest servant, the man in charge of his household, “Take an oath by putting your hand under my thigh.

Genesis 47:29 NIV

As the time of his death drew near, Jacob called for his son Joseph and said to him, “Please do me this favor. Put your hand under my thigh and swear that you will treat me with unfailing love by honoring this last request: Do not bury me in Egypt.

Leviticus 7:33 NIV

The right thigh must always be given to the priest who offers the blood and the fat of the peace offering.

Is this a translation concern? What do they REALLY mean?

Is DEATH Singular or Plural in Isaiah 53:9 and What is it’s Meaning?

Isaiah 53:9 says, “וַיִּתֵּ֤ן אֶת־רְשָׁעִים֙ קִבְרֹ֔ו וְאֶת־עָשִׁ֖יר בְּמֹתָ֑יו עַ֚ל לֹא־חָמָ֣ס עָשָׂ֔ה וְלֹ֥א מִרְמָ֖ה בְּפִֽיו׃(Westminster Leningrad Codex)

“Violence not Because in his death the rich and with his engrave the wicked with And he made in his mouth (was any) deceit neither he had done.”(Interlinear)

I am not a Hebrew Scholar, but my understanding, as well as the common translations say that בְּמֹתָ֑יו is singular, yet the BDB lists the יו as being plural.
If my assumption is correct, then why was בְּמֹתָ֑יו(death) translated Singular, and what would this passage mean if it were understood in the plural?