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| PentecostalTheology.com
Jude 1:5 has major textual variants. One reads
"Ὑπομνῆσαι δὲ ὑμᾶς βούλομαι, εἰδότας ὑμᾶς ἅπαξ πάντα, ὅτι Ἰησοῦς λαὸν ἐκ γῆς Αἰγύπτου σώσας τὸ δεύτερον τοὺς μὴ πιστεύσαντας ἀπώλεσεν"
Why is Ἰησοῦς translated as ‘Jesus’ instead of ‘Joshua’?
Philip Williams
Because the Greek text reads Jesus.