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"Verily I say unto you" is common in Matthew, Mark, and Luke, but John consistently uses the double "Verily, verily (Gk.amen, amen). (3:3, 3:5, 3:11, 5:19, 5:24, 25, 6:26, 32, 47, 53, 8:34, 51, 58, 10:1, 7, 12:24, 13:16, et al.) Was he closer to Jesus and recognized a stronger inflection in Jesus’s voice. Was this simply a Johanine idiosyncrasy? Or personal literary device in a more philosophical book?
Anonymous
Emphasis: more significant than just “verily.”
Anonymous
just Glorify God in all preaching, teaching, Drumming, and in my HOLY entirely sanctified LIVING. SOLI DEO GLORIA Duane L Burgess Anthony Tonka Green