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My understanding is that translations of Psalm 16:10 differ based on whether they are translating from the Masoretic text or the Septuagint.
For example:
"For Thou wilt not abandon my soul to the nether-world; neither wilt
Thou suffer Thy godly one to see the pit." (Jewish Publication Society Bible)
and
"For you will not abandon my soul to Sheol, or let your holy one see
corruption." (English Standard Version)
Is there any specific evidence for either translation being superior to the other? For example, is there any reason to think that the LXX might be a more accurate rendering of the original Hebrew text than the much later Masoretic manuscripts?
