Paul, after reasoning about idolatry in Athens, states:
Therefore, although God has overlooked such times of ignorance, he now
commands all people everywhere to repent, because he has set a day on
which he is going to judge the world in righteousness, by a man whom
he designated, having provided proof to everyone by raising him from
the dead.” (Acts 17:30,31 NET)
I think it is safe to say that God overlooking “such times of ignorance” means God overlooked the ignorance of the people of those times.
How did Paul understand God to have “overlooked” the ignorance of those people?
It does not seem that “overlooked” merely means that God did not call them to account while alive, sparing them certain temporal judgments. Rather, in light of verse 31, it seems to imply that they will somehow be found less culpable in the final judgment.
According to most orthodox Christian theology, these pagans who died without Christ are forever condemned and without hope. If that is the case, it doesn’t sound like God “overlooked” their ignorance to me.
Question: What does it mean for those people who lived in times when ignorance was overlooked by God?
Ricky Grimsley
???
Wahyu
It will be terrible
Wahyu
Not a one day event. But rather a time of God revealing himself
Charles Page
I believe it references the day of our personal death. Our death is an appointment with God and our judgement. It is a day in time and not outside time.
Emily Rose
Strength
Varnel Watson
For the great day of their wrath has come, and who is able to stand’” (Revelation 6:16-17)?
Pre-wrath claims that the aorist, active, indicative, verb –elthen (has come) indicates a future coming of the wrath mentioned in verse 17. Obvioyslt aorist reflects either a past tense – meaning there is wrath during the great tribulation. We can tell by how John uses the verb in other passages of Revelation, especially in similar situations. John always uses it as past tense.
Or in short Revelation 6 tells us there is wrath of God before 2nd half of the Tribulation and the day of the lord comes in Rev 6 which is in the 1st half of the Tribulation To this argument pre-wrath cant answer anything and are just silent Perhaps reflecting on their 1/2 hour of silence in heaven
Varnel Watson
any day in which Jesus is Lord Ricky Grimsley
Dan Irving
Here is a much better chart.
Jeanette Elizondo
We use this chart !!! GOOD INFO !!!
Ricky Grimsley
No the day of the lord is when God pours out his wrath.
Varnel Watson
Not true Ricky John saw him on the day of the lord in Rev 1. No wrath was poured on that day as far as John and the Bible is concerned
Ricky Grimsley
Lol seriously
Ricky Grimsley
He was in the spirit on the lord’s day meaning sunday. Not the “day of the lord”
Varnel Watson
The Greek is the same in both instances. Word Sunday is not in the text. Are you saying the Lord will return on a Sunday?
Grover Katzmarek Sr
Its has two meanings. Although one Lords Day the day of worship, then the day of the last trump
Varnel Watson
hm not according to the Greek John uses in Revelation