I have a question. I ran across something this morning that “seems” like a discrepancy in the Bible. I don’t know why I never…
Biblical eLearning (http://biblicalelearning.org) presents: Dr. Craig Keener on Acts This is the ninth of 23 lectures Dr. Craig Keener of Asbury Seminary, Wilmore, Kentucky…
Biblical eLearning (http://biblicalelearning.org) presents: Dr. Craig Keener on Acts This is the eighth of 23 lectures Dr. Craig Keener of Asbury Seminary, Wilmore, Kentucky…
Biblical eLearning (http://biblicalelearning.org) presents: Dr. Craig Keener on Acts This is the seventh of 23 lectures Dr. Craig Keener of Asbury Seminary, Wilmore, Kentucky…
When will the pouring out of the Spirit happen as mentioned in Acts 2:16-21? (Finis J. Dake)
When James cited Amos 9:11-12 in defense of his decision, he deliberately changed the words “In that day I will raise up” to “After this I will return”. Is James rendering of “After this I will return” in reference to the Second Coming and subsequent 1000 year reign (thus establishing fallen tent of David)? Dispensationalist author John Walvoord wrote:
He states, in effect, that it was God’s purpose to bless the Gentiles as well as Israel, but in their order. God was to visit the Gentiles first, “to take out of them a people for his name.” James goes on to say that this is entirely in keeping with the prophets, for they had stated that the period of Jewish blessing and triumph should be after the Gentile period: “After these things I will return, And I will build again the tabernacle of David, which is fallen.” Instead of identifying the period of Gentile conversion with the rebuilding of the tabernacle of David, it is carefully distinguished by the first (Gentile blessing), and after this, referring to Israel’s coming glory. The passage instead of identifying God’s purpose for the church and for the nation, Israel, established a specific time order. Israel’s blessing will not come until “I return,” … That it could not refer either to the Incarnation or to the coming of the Spirit at Pentecost is evident in that neither are “return’s.” The passage under consideration constitutes, then, an important guide in determining the purpose of God. God will first conclude His work for the Gentiles in the period of Israel’s dispersion; then He will return to bring in the promised blessings for Israel. It is needless to say that this confirms the interpretation that Christ is not now on the throne of David bringing blessing to Israel as the prophets predicted, but He is rather on His Father’s throne waiting for the coming earthly kingdom and interceding for His own who form the church.
In Acts 10 it states:
1 At Caesarea there was a man named Cornelius, a centurion in what was known as the Italian Regiment. 2 He and all his family were devout and God-fearing; he gave generously to those in need and prayed to God regularly. (NIV)
My understanding is that Roman soldiers of this period (Augustus through to Septimus Severus [193-211 CE]) were prohibited from marrying [“The men serving in the army, since they could not legally have wives, were granted the privileges of married men.” Cassius Dio 60.24.3]
This raises the question who are the οἴκῳ of verse 2? Are these an illicit family, thus raising questions of “devout and God-fearing;” or are they merely servants and retainers? If the former does indicate that since such non-married living and family arrangements were unofficially sanctioned by Rome, that Cornelius’ situation was an application of Acts 17:30 being in play, that his ignorance was overlooked until his repentance?
Does the word “ordained” in Acts 14:23 mean laying-on of hands?
And when they had ordained them elders in every church, and had prayed
with fasting, they commended them to the Lord, on whom they believed (KJV)
10 Daily Duties of Christians – Acts 5:42 [by DARB] Which one have you done today? 1. Pray ( Mt. 6: 11; Lk. 11:…
Paul, after reasoning about idolatry in Athens, states:
Therefore, although God has overlooked such times of ignorance, he now
commands all people everywhere to repent, because he has set a day on
which he is going to judge the world in righteousness, by a man whom
he designated, having provided proof to everyone by raising him from
the dead.” (Acts 17:30,31 NET)
I think it is safe to say that God overlooking “such times of ignorance” means God overlooked the ignorance of the people of those times.
How did Paul understand God to have “overlooked” the ignorance of those people?
It does not seem that “overlooked” merely means that God did not call them to account while alive, sparing them certain temporal judgments. Rather, in light of verse 31, it seems to imply that they will somehow be found less culpable in the final judgment.
According to most orthodox Christian theology, these pagans who died without Christ are forever condemned and without hope. If that is the case, it doesn’t sound like God “overlooked” their ignorance to me.
Question: What does it mean for those people who lived in times when ignorance was overlooked by God?
Tarrying for the Holy Ghost, In the book of Acts, the apostles are sent to Jerusalem to tarry for the promise Jesus gave of…
Acts 2:38 states; Peter replied, “Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your…