[Matthew 16:27-28] For the Son of Man will come in the glory of His Father with His angels, and then He will reward each according to his works. 28 Assuredly, I say to you, there are some standing here who shall not taste death till they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom.” (NKJV)
In verse 27, Jesus talks about Him coming, particularly "in the glory of His Father and His angels"; He says when this happens, He will reward each according to their works. It would seem that Christ here is talking about His second coming (cf. Revelation 22:12). If that is so, it would make sense that in the very next verse, where Christ once again talks about Him coming, particularly "in His kingdom", He is talking about the same coming, namely, His second coming.
If so, Jesus’ words that there were some standing with Him who would not taste death until they see Him coming would mean that His second coming took place in the first century, or else it would be a failed prophecy. Either of these options. That is, unless Jesus is not talking about His second coming in verse 28, but a coming that is different from the one He just mentioned in the previous verse… or unless He isn’t talking about His second coming in verse 27, but that seems very unlikely.
So my question is, what is the basis for such an interpretation, namely, that Jesus is talking about two different comings in verses 27 and 28? The most reasonable one seems to be that Jesus is talking about the same coming of His within these two consecutive verses, not two different ones. So what is the basis for saying that He is?