In 1 Co 11:26, is Paul teaching that Lord’s Supper would reach an end?

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While reading 1 Corinthians 11:26 I’ve noticed that almost all commentaries say that after Christ’s Parousia we will no longer partake of Lord’s Supper. But it seems a little bit contradictory with Matthew 26:29, which assumes that after the beginning of Father’s Kingdom Christ would take the wine again.

For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink the cup, ye proclaim the Lord’s death till he come.

But I say unto you, I shall not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom.

If we consider strict preterism this becomes more strange because we could say that the Supper has its end in the first century, and Christ ‘is drinking spiritual wine’. What do you think?

Thank you for your answer.