Understanding argument in Galatians 3:19-20

I think I understand the argument in Galatians 3:19a about the purpose of the law. But then in the second half of the verse, Paul begins, “The law was given through angels and entrusted to a mediator. A mediator, however, imp…


This is an extract/demonstration from a larger project.Please follow the link below to find out more. note:some of our extracts loose sound but…

Paul, Apostle of Christ

“Paul, Apostle of Christ” Movie Review… “Beyond its excellent production, the movie is very faithful to Scripture and truly honoring to God in all…

In Hebrews 12:1, what is the ‘easily entangling sin’?

In Heb. 12:1 , Paul is mentioning an ‘easily entangling’ kind of sin.

What is this meaning of this sin?

According to Ellicott’s Commentary for English Readers, there is no exact answer to this.

Whatever view be taken of the one peculiar word, it does not seem possible that the phrase can point to what is known as a “besetting sin,” the sin which in the case of any one of us is proved to possess especial power.

But maybe some of you has an hermeneutic approach to this?

Lesson taught by Dr. Paul Lee

Today’s lesson taught by Dr. Paul Lee Lifting Up Holy Hands – Part 1 Lesson 4 from the series, “Revival”

What would Paul and Peter think about the UPCI?

What would Paul and Peter think about the UPCI? #Pentecostal #Christian #CHURCH Jim Powell [02/19/2016 10:20 PM]They would reject it because of the…

What does "overlooked" mean in Acts 17:30

Paul, after reasoning about idolatry in Athens, states:

Therefore, although God has overlooked such times of ignorance, he now
commands all people everywhere to repent, because he has set a day on
which he is going to judge the world in righteousness, by a man whom
he designated, having provided proof to everyone by raising him from
the dead.” (Acts 17:30,31 NET)

I think it is safe to say that God overlooking “such times of ignorance” means God overlooked the ignorance of the people of those times.

How did Paul understand God to have “overlooked” the ignorance of those people?

It does not seem that “overlooked” merely means that God did not call them to account while alive, sparing them certain temporal judgments. Rather, in light of verse 31, it seems to imply that they will somehow be found less culpable in the final judgment.

According to most orthodox Christian theology, these pagans who died without Christ are forever condemned and without hope. If that is the case, it doesn’t sound like God “overlooked” their ignorance to me.

Question: What does it mean for those people who lived in times when ignorance was overlooked by God?