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As the world moves closer to another world war, which may include nuclear weapons, some speculate that the Tribulation period has already begun.
Others grow weary of waiting for the Lord’s return. How much longer will Jesus keep us on earth before He comes for us? Is He really going to keep us out of the time of the Lord’s wrath that’s rapidly approaching our world?
Please know that the Bible assures us that the Lord will come for us before the start of the seven-year Tribulation, which begins the moment that the antichrist makes a covenant with Israel. This has not yet happened!
1Thessalonians 5:1-11 provides much-needed encouragement regarding our hope in Jesus’ soon appearing. In this passage, the Lord, through the Apostle Paul, promises that we as believers in Jesus will miss the wrath of the coming Day of the Lord, which includes all of the Tribulation period.
Many Bible students also see 2 Thessalonians 2:3 as a verse that confirms the pre-Tribulation Rapture of the church:
“Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition” (KJV).
The traditional way of regarding “falling away,” or “rebellion” in some translations, has been to regard this as a reference to a time of future apostasy in the church. The Greek word here, apostasia, normally makes one think of apostasy, such as in a spiritual falling away.
However, in recent years, apostasia has received heightened scrutiny from biblical scholars, with many now regarding it as a reference to Jesus’ appearing to take us home to heaven, the physical departure of the church from the earth. This actually aligns with the earliest English translations of the Bible, which translated apostasia as a departure, such as in a physical exit from a location. [[i]]
Do sound reasons exist for such an interpretation?
I believe they do. Below, I discuss the reasons that changed my long-held viewpoint of this matter to that of regarding apostasia as a reference to the pre-Tribulation Rapture.
The Word Apostasia Can Refer to a Physical Departure
The first question to ask is this: Is it possible for apostasia to refer to a physical departure such as the Rapture? Yes, it can.
In his book, The Falling Away, Dr. Andy Woods provides much evidence regarding the use of the Greek word apostasia in 2 Thessalonians 2:3 as a physical departure rather than a “falling away” from the faith. He wrote this regarding the basic meaning of the word:
“…apostasia simply means to ‘to stand away from’ or ‘to depart.’ Only by examining how this word is used in its immediate context will determine what the departure is from, whether it be a spiritual or physical departure.” [ [ii]]
The root verb form apostasia confirms that it can refer to a physical departure from a location. New Testament writers used the verb form of apostasia fifteen times. As Dr. Woods points out:
“…only three times does it mean a spiritual departure. The remaining twelve times, it clearly means a physical departure. For example, Luke 2:37 says, “and then as a widow to the age of eighty-four, she never left the temple.’” [iii]
Since apostasia can refer to either a physical departure or a spiritual falling away, we must rely on the context to determine the proper interpretation.
The Context Supports a Physical Departure
Both the immediate and extended context of 2 Thessalonians 2:3 support a physical departure. The Rapture is the main subject matter of both books that Paul wrote to the Thessalonians as well as chapter two of 2 Thessalonians.
2 Thessalonians 2 begins with these words, “Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him…” (v. 1). Paul introduces this passage, verses 1-12, with a reference to the Rapture. Why would he not also have the Lord’s return to take us home on his mind two verses later? I believe he does.
As for the greater context, Dr. Woods writes,
“Since the ‘context is king’ in determining the meaning of the apostasia, and the larger context of the Thessalonian letters pertain to the return of Christ, interpreters should be open to a physical departure understanding of the word. Thus, the larger context of these two books does not favor spiritual departure interpretation of the apostasia, but rather it favors the physical departure view.” [iv]
The usage of apostasia in 2 Thessalonians 2:3 as our physical departure via the Rapture aligns with both the immediate and overall context of the verse. The context favors the interpretation of apostasia as a physical departure, such as the Rapture of the church.
Paul Is Referring to a Definite Event
Paul’s use of the definite article in front of apostasia tells us he has a specific event in mind, either a particular instance of apostasy or a definite occasion such as the Rapture. Because he does not further explain the event, this indicates the apostle was referring to an event that his readers would readily recognize.
The only apostasia of which his readers would have been aware of is that of the Rapture. They had no framework leading them to assume it meant a spiritual departure from the faith; again, we have no evidence that Paul even talked about this until much later. At the time, he assumed he would be alive at the time of Jesus’ appearing for His church. [v]
The apostle has a definite event in mind, one that his readers would readily recognize. On the other hand, Paul never refers to spiritual apostasy in either of his epistles to the Thessalonians and offers no additional clarifying information in the text.
The only departure that his readers would readily recognize is that of the Rapture.
Paul Does Not Mention Spiritual Apostasy in Either Epistle to the Thessalonians
As we look at 1 and 2 Thessalonians, we see repeated references to the Rapture, but Paul never mentions a falling away from the faith.
Why would Paul cite a spiritual departure from the faith as a key indicator of the Day of the Lord with no other mention of it in either book that he wrote to his readers? And if he had not yet mentioned it to them, we would expect to see an explanation. However, he provides no such background to his reference.
As Dr. Woods points out, Paul does not even refer to the spiritual apostasy of the church in the latter days until much later in his ministry, near its end. [vi] And when he does, the apostle always adds much supporting detail (1 Tim. 4:1-5; 2 Tim. 4:3-5).
The Sense of Physical Departure is Consistent with Verses 7-8
In 2 Thessalonians 2:7-8, Paul writes,
“For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work. Only he who now restrains it will do so until he is out of the way. And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will kill with the breath of his mouth and bring to nothing by the appearance of his coming.”
These verses tell us that the revealing of the antichrist cannot happen until the Restrainer is taken out of the way. The evidence strongly points to the Holy Spirit as the Restrainer and thus to the Rapture as the time His special restraining presence leaves the earth along with the church.
Notice the parallels with verse 3 if we assume apostasia refers to a physical departure.
- In verse 3, Jesus removes His church via the Rapture first, and then we have the revealing of the “man of lawlessness.”
- In verse 7, the Lord takes away the restraining work of the Holy Spirit that keeps the antichrist from making himself known to the world.
- In both verses 3 and 7, the antichrist steps onto the world scene after a “departure,” or the removal of either the church or the particular work of the Holy Spirit through the church.
If apostasia refers to a physical departure in verse 3, we then find a parallel in the context in verses 7-8, which provides us with additional evidence favoring a reference to the Rapture in verse 3.
An Example from Church History
As additional evidence supporting the interpretation of apostasia as a physical departure, we have an example from early church history. A key leader at the time referred to what we now call the Rapture as a “departure.” Cyprian, a bishop in the city of Carthage during the third century AD, wrote this:
We who see that terrible things have begun, and know that still more terrible things are imminent, may regard it as the greatest advantage to depart from it as quickly as possible. Do you not give God thanks, do you not congratulate yourself, that by an early departure you are taken away, and delivered from the shipwrecks and disasters that are imminent? [vii]
Cyprian (AD 200–258) used the words “depart” and “early departure” to refer to the Lord’s appearing to take His church away before a time of “shipwrecks and disasters.” While this by itself doesn’t confirm the translation of apostasia as “departure,” it lends considerable support to our interpretation of the word as a reference to the Rapture.
Please also note that Cyprian believed the church would depart before a time of great trouble on the earth.
The Rapture is Consistent with the Expectation of the Thessalonians
The young believers in Thessalonica expected the Lord to come for them before the start of the day of the Lord. Their response to an errant message telling them this time had already begun confirms this. They panicked when they received the mistaken communication.
In response to their frayed nerves, Paul told them “not to be quickly shaken in mind or alarmed” (2 Thess. 2:2). “The verb shaken denotes a rocking motion, a shaking up and down, like a building shaken by an earthquake…” [viii] To be “alarmed” signifies a feeling of “fright” with its usage here conveying a “state of alarm, of nervous excitement.” [ix]
Paul’s main purpose in 2 Thessalonians 2:1-12 was to comfort and assure the Thessalonian believers that the Day of the Lord had not yet started. The fact that they remained earthbound does that much better than a spiritual falling away from the faith that might occur far away.
This Confirms a Pre-Tribulation Rapture
In my book, The Triumph of the Redeemed, I wrote:
If apostasia refers to a physical departure, and the context and other evidence strongly support this conclusion, Paul is telling his readers, and us, that they could know that the Day of the Lord hadn’t yet started because they remained earthbound. This must signify that the Rapture occurs before the start of the Tribulation since the judgments of this time fall under the umbrella of the Day of the Lord. [x]
This is not wishful thinking but rather the result of a careful study of word usage as well as the context of 2 Thessalonians 2:3.
If apostasia signifies the physical departure of the church from the earth, and the evidence strongly suggests that it does, the Rapture must occur before the antichrist makes his appearance on the world scene and makes a covenant with the nation of Israel.
The fulfillment of Jesus’ words in John 14:2-3 is the next event on God’s prophetic calendar. Keep watching and enduring until the glorious day Jesus comes for us!
“Let not your hearts be troubled. Believe in God; believe also in me. In my Father’s house are many rooms. If it were not so, would I have told you that I go to prepare a place for you? And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again and will take you to myself, that where I am you may be also.”
—
My book, The Triumph of the Redeemed-An eternal Perspective that Calms Our Fears in Perilous Times, is available on Amazon. This book provides a step-by-step account of why the Rapture must happen before the Tribulation period.
Note: Please consider signing up for my newsletter on the home page of my website at https://www.jonathanbrentner.com/. It will greatly help me reach more people. Thanks!
[i] The Wycliffe Bible (1384), Tyndale Bible (1526), Coverdale Bible (1535), Cranmer Bible (1539), Breeches Bible (1576), Beza Bible (1583), and Geneva Bible (1608) all translated “apostasia” as a physical departure.
[ii] Andy Woods, The Falling Away – Spiritual Departure or Physical Rapture? (Taos, NM, Dispensational Publishing House, Inc., 2018), p. 19.
[iii] Ibid. p. 23
[iv] Ibid. p. 27
[v] Jonathan C. Brentner, The Triumph of the Redeemed (Crane, MO: Defender publishing, 2021) pp. 146-47.
[vi]Andy Woods, p. 13
[vii] Cyprian, Treatises of Cyprian, “On the Mortality,” section 25.
[viii] Hiebert, D Edmond, The Thessalonian Epistles (Chicago: Moody Press, 1971), p. 301.
[ix] Ibid., p. 302
[x] Brentner, p. 148.
The post Don’t Be Deceived: The Rapture Happens First :: By Jonathan Brentner appeared first on Rapture Ready.
Anonymous
oh yes Neil Steven Lawrence TerryandNita Wiles Oscar Valdez Brett Dobbs Nelson Banuchi Ricky Grimsley Steve Losee Robert Dickinson James Pinkerton there is absolutely NO DOUBT about it
Anonymous
Troy Day one would be hard-pressed to convince me…
Anonymous
Troy Day I’m copying and pasting some of the authors statements and my comments are in parentheses ( )
Why would Paul cite a spiritual departure from the faith as a key indicator of the Day of the Lord with no other mention of it in either book that he wrote to his readers? And if he had not yet mentioned it to them, we would expect to see an explanation. However, he provides no such background to his reference.
(He provided no further explanation because 2 Thessalonians 2:5 (KJV) Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things?)
As Dr. Woods points out, Paul does not even refer to the spiritual apostasy of the church in the latter days until much later in his ministry, near its end. [vi] And when he does, the apostle always adds much supporting detail (1 Tim. 4:1-5; 2 Tim. 4:3-5).
(1 Timothy 4:1 (KJV) Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils;)
(Key word latter times)
2 Timothy 4:3-4 (KJV) 3 For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears; 4 And they shall turn away [their] ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables.
(Time will come, is basically the same as “latter time or in the last days”
(Really, do we see no connection here?
How do we not know that Paul wasn’t teaching the Thessalonians the same thing as he’s writing Timothy? Oh wait, Timothy was with Paul in Thessalonica.)
(2 Thessalonians 2:9-11 (KJV) 9 [Even him], whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders, 10 And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved. 11 And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie:)
(It’s the same thing here that he wrote to Timothy)
In 2 Thessalonians 2:7-8, Paul writes,
“For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work. Only he who now restrains it will do so until he is out of the way. And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will kill with the breath of his mouth and bring to nothing by the appearance of his coming.”
These verses tell us that the revealing of the antichrist cannot happen until the Restrainer is taken out of the way. The evidence strongly points to the Holy Spirit as the Restrainer and thus to the Rapture as the time His special restraining presence leaves the earth along with the church.
Notice the parallels with verse 3 if we assume apostasia refers to a physical departure.
* In verse 3, Jesus removes His church via the Rapture first, and then we have the revealing of the “man of lawlessness.”
* In verse 7, the Lord takes away the restraining work of the Holy Spirit that keeps the antichrist from making himself known to the world.
* In both verses 3 and 7, the antichrist steps onto the world scene after a “departure,” or the removal of either the church or the particular work of the Holy Spirit through the church.
If apostasia refers to a physical departure in verse 3, we then find a parallel in the context in verses 7-8, which provides us with additional evidence favoring a reference to the Rapture in verse 3.
My comment of the entire article:
(Overall we still have a problem that the author of this article does not address.
2 Thessalonians 2:1 (KJV) Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and [by] our gathering together unto him,
What two things is being addressed?
1. The coming of Jesus 2. Our gathering together to him aka the rapture.
2 Thessalonians 2:3 (KJV) Let no man deceive you by any means: for [that day shall not come], except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
Verse 3 says that something must come to pass before verse 1 can occur.
It does not say “concerning the falling away or departure and man of sin is revealed that first must come our gathering together with him and the day of the Lord.” It literally says the complete opposite. How is this so difficult to understand?
This author is making a case that the departure of the church must come before the departure of the church.
Here is a plausible but ridiculous argument. (Paul tells the Thessalonians that they are the saints who will go through the tribulation but no need to worry, it hasn’t started yet because the rest of the church hasn’t departed yet.)
That’s a hog wash statement because there is no text to support that idea, but yet that would closer align to the context of Paul’s words and to what the author of this article is suggesting.
Anonymous
Troy Day But the author is mostly making a case that the correct translation for apostosia is departure and not apostasy of the faith. So let’s address that. And compare to verses 6 & 7.
2 Thessalonians 2:6-7 (KJV) 6 And now ye know what withholdeth that he might be revealed in his time. 7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth [will let], until he be taken out of the way.
1. Something is withholding the man of sin from being revealed which means something is keeping that man from coming to the power that he will receive in order to be the one who will exalt himself to be God and will cause the abomination of desolation and all that stuff.
2. Who ever is preventing or restraining this must be taken out of the way in order for this to come to pass.
The author says it’s the Holy Spirit. He says that he is taken away when the church is taken away. My question is how do the saints come to faith during the tribulation if the Holy Spirit is no longer on earth? Can ones soul be saved and redeemed apart of the Holy Spirit?
Does the Bible say that the Holy Spirit restrains anything?
The Bible says that The Spirit is our helper, advocate, seals us until the time of redemption, brings things to remembrance, and convicts us of our sin. The Holy Spirit also pre warns of committing a sin, but we have the free will to not obey and quench the spirit, which we shouldn’t do.
Is there anyone else in the Bible who does actually restrain things or people?
Yes they’re called principality’s or angels.
Revelation 7:1 there are 4 angels holding the winds of the earth. They can restrain the wind. Daniel 10 Michael the arc Angel is battling other principality’s who are influencing the kings or the world leaders.
Daniel 12:1 (KJV) And at that time shall Michael stand up, the great prince which standeth for the children of thy people: and there shall be a time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation [even] to that same time: and at that time thy people shall be delivered, every one that shall be found written in the book.
There is a summery of the entire thing. But take note, Michael the arc Angel is a protector of Israel. Looking back at the details in chapter 11, what does the son of perdition do? He takes over Israel. So how could he do that if Michael is protecting Israel? Only by Michael being taken out of the way.
Revelation 12:7-9 (KJV) 7 And there was war in heaven: Michael and his angels fought against the dragon; and the dragon fought and his angels, 8 And prevailed not; neither was their place found any more in heaven. 9 And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world: he was cast out into the earth, and his angels were cast out with him.
And what happens immediately after this?
Revelation 12:13 (KJV) And when the dragon saw that he was cast unto the earth, he persecuted the woman which brought forth the man [child].
He goes after Israel. And take notice also in Daniel 12:1 it actually says that he stands up for the children of thy people. So I wonder if that might actually be referring to the saints. The saints of the most high which is Jesus Christ.
Revelation 12:17 (KJV) And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.
Does the church have the testimony of Jesus Christ? Does the church keep the commandments of God? As Jesus gave them, thou shalt love thy God, and love your neighbor as yourself for all the law hangs on these two commandments.
So let’s review.
The coming of Jesus Christ and our gathering together to him cannot happen until first there is a departure of Michael the Arc Angel and the man of sin, that son of perdition is revealed. We know that iniquity is already at work. Only Michael who restrains will restrain until he is taken out of the way. Then that man of sin will be revealed.
Anonymous
Don’t be deceived the judgement happens first. Be ye separate!
Anonymous
There are a number of problems with this article, which promote the newfangled 20th century interpretation of the apostasy as referring to the rapture.
Let us consider some of his arguments. Here is one:
>>>2 Thessalonians 2 begins with these words, “Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him…” (v. 1). Paul introduces this passage, verses 1-12, with a reference to the Rapture. Why would he not also have the Lord’s return to take us home on his mind two verses later? I believe he does.<<< I agree with that statement, but look at the context. I Thessalonians 2 1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him, 2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand. 3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; Of course Paul had he rapture in mind. The rapture isn't going to take place until the falling away happens, then the abomination of desolation standing in the holy place. Look at Matthew 24. First the love of many wax cold. Then there is the great tribulation. Then the coming of the Son of man and the gathering of the elect. Now look in this passage. The coming of the Lord and our gathering together to Him does not take place until the falling away happens first. The day of Christ/day of the Lord is called the 'day' in chapter 1 v. 10. In II Thessalonians 1, we see that the CHURCH will recieve rest during a time of tribulation when the Lord returns. During this return, the Lord executes vengeance on them that believe not, when He comes to be glorified in the saints. This is not described as two separate events (as in the pretrib theory) so we should not read the pre-trib theory into the next chapter. Compare the two passages: Matthew 24--------------------------II Thes. 1-2 * love of many shall wax cold(v12)--Falling away/apostasy(2:3) abomination of desolation in--------man of sin declares himself the holy place (v15) to be god (2:4) * the great tribulation(v21,29)-----Jesus returns giving _church_ rest from tribulation (1:1,4,6,) * Coming of the Son of Man and------Coming of the Lord and our gathering gathering of the elect (v.30) unto Him (v.1) Here is another poor argument. 1Thessalonians 5:1-11 provides much-needed encouragement regarding our hope in Jesus’ soon appearing. In this passage, the Lord, through the Apostle Paul, promises that we as believers in Jesus will miss the wrath of the coming Day of the Lord, which includes all of the Tribulation period. Where does this passage say that 'all of the Tribulation period' is the wrath of the coming day of the Lord. The verse which mentions wrath is, 9 For God hath not appointed us to wrath, but to obtain salvation by our Lord Jesus Christ, It does not say 'the wrath of the coming day of the Lord' and it is the author's idea to equate wrath with all of the tribulation period. In fact, this passage, in verses 4-5, indicates that the day should not overtake his readers as the feast. This should remind us of Jesus' advice regarding being prepared for the coming of the Son of man as a homeowner would be for a theif, in regard to the coming of the Son of Man which occurs AFTER THE TRIBULATION in Matthew 24. 21 For then shall be GREAT TRIBULATION... 9 Immediately AFTER THE TRIBULATION of those days... 30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the SON OF MAN COMING in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. 31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall GATHER HIS ELECT from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other. ... 43 But know this, that if the goodman of the house had known in what watch the THEIF would come, he would have watched, and would not have suffered his house to be broken up. 44 Therefore be ye also ready: for in such an hour as ye think not the SON OF MAN COMETH. It makes more sense to interpret I Thessalonians 5 to refer to the post-tribulational coming of Christ that is actually mentioned in the Bible as opposed to a pretrib rapture that is not mentioned in the Bible at all. Here is another argument he makes: >>Paul’s use of the definite article in front of apostasia tells us he has a specific event in mind, either a particular instance of apostasy or a definite occasion such as the Rapture. Because he does not further explain the event, this indicates the apostle was referring to an event that his readers would readily recognize.
>>>>>The only apostasia of which his readers would have been aware of is that of the Rapture. They had no framework leading them to assume it meant a spiritual departure from the faith; again, we have no evidence that Paul even talked about this until much later. At the time, he assumed he would be alive at the time of Jesus’ appearing for His church. [v] <<<< With the second paragraph he quotes from Andy Wood's book, page 13. The problem with his argument is that Paul does refer to an end time falling away from the faith in one of his letters, but he does not call the rapture 'the departure.' There is no evidence that Paul or anyone else who wrote scripture believed in a pretribulational rapture. There is no pretrib rapture in II Thessalonians 1, which immediately follows this passage. Jesus comes back during a time when the church is going through tribulation. When he comes He executes vengeance on them that believe not when He comes to be glorified in he saints. We are also getting an allusion to one of Paul's teachings that isn't explictly in these two epistles to the Thessalonians, regarding the falling away/apostasy/departure here. It makes more sense for us to think that Paul had a body of eschatological teaching that we can understand by looking holistically at all of his epistles, and that Paul would have taught the same doctrine from church to church and also to Timothy. It makes more sense to take the apostasy as referring to the departing from the faith in the last days in the following verse. I Timothy 4:1 Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils; We can also compare this to Matthew 24, 11 And many false prophets shall rise, and shall deceive many. 12 And because iniquity shall abound, the love of many shall wax cold. Also, given the fact that there is actual Biblical teaching on an explictly post-tribulational gathering of the elect in Matthew 24 at the coming of the Son of Man, it makes more sense to interpret Paul's reference to 'the coming of the Lord and our gathering unto Him' as referring to the same event. The alternative would be to think it refers to a pre-tribulational rapture event, which is nowhere described in scripture. The actual 'rapture' passage also sets the rapture and resurrection at the coming of the Lord, not seven years before it. It makes sense to interpret the I Thessalonians 4 rapture event as occuring at the actual post-tribulational coming of the Lord that we see taught in scripture as opposed to the pre-trib rapture event which is not taught in scripture.
Anonymous
there are NO problems in this article with the Scriptures you have shown Link Hudson Actually you twist it quite a bit with you regular copy paste of the same things which FB considers spam of course FOR Starters
comparing ==> Matthew 24————————–II Thes. 1-2
is comparing apples to oranges; and then you throw your free personal interpretation bananas in it – it turns to a wonderful fruit salad BUT not theology proper
Paul Is Referring to a Definite Event
Paul’s use of the definite article in front of apostasia tells us he has a specific event in mind, either a particular instance of apostasy or a definite occasion such as the Rapture. Because he does not further explain the event, this indicates the apostle was referring to an event that his readers would readily recognize.
The only apostasia of which his readers would have been aware of is that of the Rapture. They had no framework leading them to assume it meant a spiritual departure from the faith; again, we have no evidence that Paul even talked about this until much later. At the time, he assumed he would be alive at the time of Jesus’ appearing for His church
Anonymous
The rapture appears in I Thessalonians.
But in II Thessalonians 2 it’s the middle of the Trib that is being explained.
It’s not just “apostasy” but with the definite article, THE apostasy.
The Holy Spirit ceases His restraint of evil allowing for the man of sin to be revealed.
Satan is cast down, knowing his time is short (Rev. 12), indwells the world leader, enters the Temple and declares himself to be God: the apostasy of all apostasies.
I Tim. 4:1 is about the tares leaving the churches as the End Times appear, revealing the lost and the true saints.
Anonymous
“Paul is not discussing the time of the rapture. He says nothing about the time of the Rapture. He simply says the Day of the Lord is preceded by the apostasy. He doesn’t say whether his readers will see the apostasy, whether any believers will see the apostasy or not see the apostasy. The time of the rapture is not a discussion here…
Look back at verse 3. He doesn’t say it will not come until apostasy comes first, but until what? The apostasy. In this case that article is very definitive, the apostasy. This is an event. This is not a general spirit or a general flow or a trend, this is an event, specific, identifiable, unique. This is the consummate apostasy, the ultimate apostasy. This is as you would have it the final act in the course that was set in motion in Romans chapter 1. This is the event of final evil, blasphemous magnitude…
Whatever this apostasy is it is an event in which the man of lawlessness is revealed. The verb, by the way, “revealed,” stands in the emphatic position in the aorist tense, for those of you who care, which points to a definite time when he’s revealed. And it would read like this, “The apostasy comes first, revealed is the man of lawlessness.” It is at the apostasy that the revelation of the man of lawlessness takes place.”
Anonymous
https://www.gty.org/library/sermons-library/53-9/the-coming-man-of-sin-part-3