Does Galatians 1:1 preclude the Lord Jesus Christ from being just a man?

Posted by in Facebook's Pentecostal Theology Group View the Original Post

In Gal. 1:1, it is written,

1 Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead;) KJV, 1769

Αʹ Παῦλος ἀπόστολος οὐκ ἀπ᾽ ἀνθρώπων οὐδὲ δι᾽ ἀνθρώπου ἀλλὰ διὰ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ καὶ θεοῦ πατρὸς τοῦ ἐγείραντος αὐτὸν ἐκ νεκρῶν TR, 1550

Paul writes that he is an apostle (literally, “one who is sent”) “not from men, neither by man,” but rather, by Jesus Christ and God the Father.

Does such a statement preclude the possibility that, in the eyes of the apostle Paul, the Lord Jesus Christ was simply a man (rather than God-man)?

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