Did Paul establish the churches in Galatia?

(KJV)Galatians 1:6

I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ unto another gospel:

(KJV)Galatians 4:15

Where is then the blessedness ye spake of? for I bear you record, th…

What does "belly" mean in Philippians 3:19?

Many translations of the Bible use the word “belly” in Philippians 3:19:

Their end is destruction, their god is their belly, and they glory in their shame, with minds set on earthly things. (ESV)

The context of the pass…

Does Galatians 1:1 preclude the Lord Jesus Christ from being just a man?

In Gal. 1:1, it is written,

1 Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead;) KJV, 1769

Αʹ Παῦλος ἀπόστολος οὐκ ἀπ᾽ ἀνθρώπων οὐδὲ δι᾽ ἀνθρώπου ἀλλὰ διὰ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ καὶ θεοῦ πατρὸς τοῦ ἐγείραντος αὐτὸν ἐκ νεκρῶν TR, 1550

Paul writes that he is an apostle (literally, “one who is sent”) “not from men, neither by man,” but rather, by Jesus Christ and God the Father.

Does such a statement preclude the possibility that, in the eyes of the apostle Paul, the Lord Jesus Christ was simply a man (rather than God-man)?

Was Jesus really a carpenter?

Matthew 13:55 states:

Is not this the carpenter’s son? Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas?

Mark 6:3 (ESV) states:

Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary …

What scripture is Paul referring to in Ephesians 5:14?

In Ephesians we find that light (religious truth) is described as very powerful as it is able to make dead things living just by shining on them.

But when anything is exposed by the light, it becomes visible, for anything that becomes visible is light. Therefore it says,
“Awake, O sleeper,
and arise from the dead,
and Christ will shine on you.”

(Ephesians 5:13-14, ESV)

However, this is no direct quote of any biblical passage, so I imagine Paul simply puts it in his own words to apply it to the context. But what is ‘it’; what scripture is he paraphrasing here which fully suits the context? Why is it an appropriate verse to quote in this context?

Translating κυριακὸν and κυριακῇ as an adjective (dominical) instead of indicating belonging

A translation of the bible in Spanish (La Biblia Textual – 3ra Edición) translates:

κυριακὸν δεῖπνον = cena dominical (dominical supper) — 1 Corinthians 11:20


κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ = día dominical (dominical day) — Revelation 1:10

A marginal note says that these words must be translated as an adjective instead of indicating belonging.

Nevertheless, most of the translations translate these verses as “Lord’s supper” and “Lord’s day”, respectively. Although the Lord’s day is traditionally identified as Sunday, did Paul have in mind the day Sunday on 1 Corinthians 11:20? Is it plausible to translate κυριακὸν and κυριακῇ as an adjective (dominical) instead of indicating belonging?