Why is "deliver us from evil" a possible translation?

Why is "deliver us from evil" a possible translation?

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| PentecostalTheology.com

In Matthew 6:13, The Lord’s Prayer reaches its end with the famous:

and deliver us from evil (or from the evil one)

I’m not here to ask which translation is right, I just want to understand what are the reasons behind the choice from evil (which I personally prefer).

Is it that the Greek τοῦ πονηροῦ (tou ponērou), even known articulated, is neutral, as opposed to masculine, that we can understand "the evil" as a generalization of all evil?
Or is it perhaps something else?

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