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| PentecostalTheology.com
Paul uses the word νόμος 14 times in Galatians 3:
| verse | Greek |
|---|---|
| v2 | ἐξ ἔργων νόμου |
| v5 | ἐξ ἔργων νόμου |
| v10 (twice) | ἐξ ἔργων νόμου … τοῦ νόμου |
| v11 | ἐν νόμῳ |
| v12 | ὁ δὲ νόμος |
| v13 | τοῦ νόμου |
| v17 | ὁ μετὰ τετρακόσια καὶ τριάκοντα ἔτη γεγονὼς νόμος |
| v18 | ἐκ νόμου |
| v19 | ὁ νόμος |
| v21 (twice) | ὁ οὖν νόμος … νόμος |
| v23 | ὑπὸ νόμον |
| v24 | ὁ νόμος |
The article is present universally except:
- The second use in v21, commonly translated "a law"
- Whenever a preposition is present
Does the absence of an article (aside from v21) imply that Paul is intentionally being less definite (ie perhaps conveying some more general sense of ‘law’ than ‘The Law of Moses’) or is there some rule in Koine about dropping the article when there is a preposition?
