But in fact Christ has been raised from the dead, the firstfruits[ἀπαρχή] of those who have fallen asleep.
-1 Corinthians 15:20
The ἀπαρχή here is in the singular form and seems to clearly be in reference to the singular Christ, however, in almost every translation, it is rendered as a plural compound noun firstfruits as opposed to a singular firstfruit.
This seems odd to me. Why would the translators almost uniformly present Christ conceptually as a plural?
It seems more natural to me to view Christ as the firstfruit instead of the firstfruits since he is one person, and so it seems useful to rendor ἀπαρχή as singular at least in my head.
Should ἀπαρχή instead be singular in English translations to match the Greek singular form and Christ, the singular referent?