Why do the Renaissance era English Bible translations prefer the word "devils" rather than "demons"?

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Tyndale Bible, Geneva Bible, King James Bible, and Douay Rheims Bible (all from the same era) prefer to use the word “devils” (or an earlier variation such as “deuils”). The English word “demons” was never used to refer to evil spirits in those translations. Back then, “devils” were the evil spirits of the New Testament.

In modern Bible translations of the 19th century and later the wording for “devils” in those verses changed to “demons”. This notable word was introduced into the general Bible reading public starting with the American Standard Version of 1901, although we already started seeing several individuals using the word “demons” earlier (in the 19th century). For example, in 1833 Noah Webster used “demons” in several verses of his Bible translation, followed by Brenton, Young and Darby, all in the 19th century. But the early Bibles clearly translated the Greek and Latin words for demons to “devils” instead. An exception is “diabola” (the Latin equivalent of the Greek word), which is still translated as “devil” even in modern English translations.

The word “demon” or “demons” were NEVER mentioned in all the early English Bible translations, except once by the Douay Rheims Bible (same era as King James) but that was in Isaiah in reference to what in modern Bible translations refer to as wild desert animals, wild goats, or other wild animals of the night, not evil spirits.

I’m thinking that “demon” had not been introduced into the English language as an evil spirit until sometime after the end of the 17th century, but I would like some confirmation from others who have studied this more.

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