What is the difference between the victim of divorce in 1 Corinthians 7:15, and Luke 16:18, if remarriage is permitted by Paul?

What is the difference between the victim of divorce in 1 Corinthians 7:15, and Luke 16:18, if remarriage is permitted by Paul?

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Many people believe that 1 Corinthians 7:15 gives Christians grounds for remarriage if their unbelieving spouse leaves and persistently rejects the idea of reconciliation. This is how I’ve just naturally read the passage, yet I have a strong confirmation bias and am not trustworthy to myself to give a good answer. I have watched Mike Wingers video on this, listened to many others who agree/disagree with it, and my question is this (preferibly if you are FOR remarriage in 1 Cor. 7:15):

What is the difference between the innocent divorced person in Matthew 5:32/Luke 16:18, and the innocent divorced person in 1 Corinthians 7:15 if in 1 Cor 7, the believer is free to remarry?

In the gospels, Jesus tells us that anyone who marries the divorced person (implying someone who was wrongfully divorced) commits adultery. “Everyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, and he who marries a woman divorced from her husband commits adultery." – Luke 16:18.

So for those who are pro-remarriage in 1 Corinthians 7:15, it seems that Paul would be contradicting what Jesus is saying here, if he was allowing remarriage. It would seem like Jesus is saying, "If you leave your wife and marry someone else, you’re committing adultery. And whoever marries the woman that was wrongfully left by her husband commits adultery" (which applies to all of humanity whether they believe in Christ or not, because sin is sin), yet Paul would be contradicting this command by saying, "If your unbelieving spouse leaves you, the person who marries you is not committing adultery."

It seems like Jesus is giving a universal command, that whoever marries a divorced person is committing adultery, even if they were the unwilling victim of the divorce, yet Paul would be making an exception, saying that if your spouse leaves you, you are free to remarry. To me, it doesn’t seem to make much of a difference whether they are a believer or not, given the fact that Jesus’ commands apply to all of humanity, including non-believers.

I’m not making an argument, because I want the text to allow for remarriage, but I know my confirmation bias, and would like some help unpacking this, please. I’d prefer it if someone who believes remarriage is okay to respond to this, because I want to weigh the response against this seeming confliction, not because I wanr my ears tickled.

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