It is sometimes depicted that the basic argument to read “the creation story” (Genesis 1) as a non literal story are modern science and the evolution theory. But I believe that the biggest problem with a literal view is in the text itself. More specific in the differences between the “creation stories” in Genesis 1 and 2.
Order of Gen 1
Vegetation created:
God said, “Let the land produce vegetation: plants yielding seeds
according to their kinds, and trees bearing fruit with seed in it
according to their kinds.” It was so. The land produced vegetation –
plants yielding seeds according to their kinds, and trees bearing
fruit with seed in it according to their kinds. God saw that it was
good. (1:11)
Human created:
Then God said, “Let us make humankind in our image, after our
likeness, so they may rule over the fish of the sea and the birds of
the air, over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over all the
creatures that move on the earth.” (1:26)
Order of Gen 2
No vegetation:
Now no shrub of the field had yet grown on the earth, and no plant of
the field had yet sprouted, for the Lord God had not caused it to rain
on the earth, and there was no man to cultivate the ground. (2:5)
Human created:
The Lord God formed the man from the soil of the ground and breathed
into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living
being. (2:7)
Vegetation created:
The Lord God planted an orchard in the east, in Eden; and there he
placed the man he had formed. The Lord God made all kinds of trees
grow from the soil, every tree that was pleasing to look at and good
for food. (Now the tree of life and the tree of the knowledge of good
and evil were in the middle of the orchard.) (2:8-9)
All quotes are from the NET Bible.
Question
Is there a way to make a strong argument that both those stories are to be read literally (as if it was written by a modern historian)? How could those different accounts be merged?
Varnel Watson
Love to hate them or hate to love them? Melvin Shomo Dan Irving
Curt Stewart
Where in the bible is it a sin to edify the people of God ?
If I don’t like or care for something doesn’t mean it’s a sin.
Eva Benevento
Traditions are not necessarily sin.
Jerry Eicher
2 Timothy 4:3
A.J. Bible
One would assume if a statement is made that something is “unbiblical” there would actually be scriptural evidence. Yet with this post there is none.its completely biblical to edify the congregation in God’s Word concerning tithes and offerings.
Varnel Watson
Well now we cant really find pastoral offering sermonets in the Bible now can we?
TimnJanay Richards
Malicah 3
Hebrews 7
Jesus speaking of the widow woman and her offering
Paul to the church in Phillipi
So Troy these are just a few
Varnel Watson
was any of these done BEFORE preaching a longer Sunday sermon as OP inquires?
A.J. Bible
“pastoral sermonettes” is your phrase. What we find in the Bible is doctrinal teaching on tithes and offerings. Paul continually taught on giving. This of course was read to the churches.
Varnel Watson
actually “pastoral sermonettes” belongs to the OP
A.J. Bible
1 Corinthians 16, 2 Corinthians 8, 9, Philippians 4.
Varnel Watson
Well A.J. Bible I read your verses but see no connection to OP Maybe we should ask Herrnhut Morton who posted it what he really meant or how Ricky Grimsley who commented there understood it. I read it as a brief word asking for money before the actual sermon
Ricky Grimsley
It was three years ago
Varnel Watson
your memory serves you well
A.J. Bible
You see no connection? Those are all letters to churches from Paul where he admonishes the churches on giving. Those are all literal examples of exactly what the OP says the Bible doesn’t do.
Varnel Watson
The question is did he do it with short sermonts before the major sermon. Obviously not if they are at the end of epistolar forma letters Also his asking was not from his church for the sake of his church where he was a pastor. Exegetically speaking, these examples do not answer our question ..wait you are also from SC wait a minute you are related to the other Bible
A.J. Bible
So if the pastor exhorts the congregation on the Biblical command of giving AFTER the sermon it’s ok?
A.J. Bible
Yes. He’s my father and pastor
Varnel Watson
Did Paul did it this way in any of his sermons? We do not have any Biblical proof
A.J. Bible
What is his letters? If not sermons?
Varnel Watson
Letters. Not sermons 🙂 Except if Paul sent a brief pre-letter before his main latter. Then we have a case
A.J. Bible
Lol.
A.J. Bible
Semantics
Leon Bible
Hey brother Troy Day would you also be against sharing Scripture before Water Baptism and Communion?
Varnel Watson
Leon Bible How is this relevant per the question in OP? Are you assuming offering is a sacrament like Water Baptism and Communion? Again all these questions should be directed to original poster Herrnhut Morton from whom we are yet to hear
Leon Bible
Troy Day To answer your question… It is relevant as a comparison of reading Scriptures in the Church services. If you are against reading Scriptures before the offering and the receiving of tithes, then you might also be against reading Scriptures before other parts of the service such as the Communion and Water Baptism. That is why the question was asked. In other words it helps to show inconsistencies in ones Biblical understanding. No, never said the Offering was a sacrament, but under the strict definition of the word it very well could be. That be as it may… There is no Scriptural authority to forbid the reading of Scripture before the offering.
Varnel Watson
Again it is NOT my question in OP 🙂 Leon Bible
Leon Bible
Troy Day Sorry but I thought since you asked: “Leon Bible How is this relevant per the question in OP? Are you assuming offering is a sacrament like Water Baptism and Communion?” That that was two questions from you to me. Was I mistaken?
Gary Rinehart
Amen
Scott Phillips
I think it’s a good opportunity to teach and encourage. Pro teaching at every opportunity