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| PentecostalTheology.com
Matthew 26:63b:
And the high priest answered and said unto him, I adjure thee by the
living God, that thou tell us whether thou be the Christ, the Son of
God.
Christ is the Greek form of the word Messiah.
It is interesting that the two titles (Messiah, Son of God) are paired in this question. See this pairing also in Matthew 16:16, John 20:31. But in the Matthew 26 example the question is coming from someone who does not believe Jesus can lay claim to either title–why does he associate the titles?
(note that in all 3 cases the title "Son of God" implies son in a unique sense that not everyone can claim)
I am unfamiliar with an Old Testament passage that would clearly indicate that the Jews expected their Messiah to be the Son of God–was that their expectation at the time?
Related question that partially inspired this one: According to the trial record at Matthew 26:63 the high priest Caiaphas ask Jesus to swear an oath as to His identity?
