FREE Jewish Annotated New Testament (PDF)
I’m excited about this one! The Jewish Annotated New Testament Although major New Testament figures–Jesus and Paul, Peter and James, Jesus’ mother Mary and…
I’m excited about this one! The Jewish Annotated New Testament Although major New Testament figures–Jesus and Paul, Peter and James, Jesus’ mother Mary and…
Many commentators note that the lineage of Cain in Genesis 4 is followed by a genealogy of Seth in Genesis 5 and compare the two lines, treating Cain’s line as godless and Seth’s line as godly. This particularly appears, for …
In 1 Corinthians 13:10 – Will “The Perfect” actually come to everyone – all at the same time?
Or, does the underlying Greek indicate a subjective experience? Could it be a subjective experience, (like dying and going to heaven, or Spiritual Maturity)?
Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance, ὅταν – as long as, whenever; From hote and an; whenever (implying hypothesis or more or less uncertainty); also causatively (conjunctionally) inasmuch as — as long (soon) as, that, + till, when(-soever), while.
1 Corinthians 13:10 – and whenever | ὅταν the perfect might come | ἔλθῃ – Subjunctive, the partial will fall away.
1 Corinthians 13:12 – “… presently, I know partially, and then I will intimately know, just fully just as I also have been fully known.”
Closely Related:
– 1 Corinthians 13:10 – What does Paul mean by “Completeness”?
– 1 Corinthians 13:10 – What does “The Perfect” Refer to?
– 1 Corinthians 13:10 – What Will Cease when “The Perfect” Comes?
– 1 Corinthians 13:8 – What is the Significance of the Intransitive verb “παύσονται”?
– 1 Corinthians 13:9-10 – What Does “ἐκ μέρους” Mean?
– 1 Corinthians 13:9 – What does “Out From” Mean?
Consider the following passage:
Isaiah 55:13 KJV Instead of the thorn shall come up the fir tree, and instead of the brier shall come up the myrtle tree: and it shall be to the LORD for a name, for an everlasting sign tha…
This is Mark 7:19 from the NIV:
For it doesn’t go into their heart but into their stomach, and then out of the body.” (In saying this, Jesus declared all foods clean.)
Every time I see a parenthetical note in an ancient text, I feel like it was a later addition from a scribe.
Does our oldest manuscripts contain that part of the verse? Even it does, is there any reason to believe that it was a later addition?
In Genesis 4:19-22, we read a short account of some of Cain’s decendents:
Lamech married two women, one named Adah and the other Zillah. Adah gave birth to Jabal; he was the father of those who live in tents and raise livestock. His brother’s name was Jubal; he was the father of all who play stringed instruments and pipes. Zillah also had a son, Tubal-Cain, who forged all kinds of tools out of bronze and iron. Tubal-Cain’s sister was Naamah.
It’s noticeable right away that this line is very inventive. They’re seemingly credited for:
Possibly also the line is the first to build a city (Cain v. 17) and take two wives (Lamech, v. 19).
Given that the line starts with Cain who murdered his brother and who lives under a curse, and ends in this section with Lamech who is also a murderer, what is the author’s purpose in noting the inventions that came from Cain and his decendents? Is the author trying to somehow ameliorate their reputation? Or perhaps tarnish the their inventions by linking them to their character? Simply recording the history of a few items? Or something else?
This question was inspired by a similar question about the Gospel of John: Is the Gospel of John arranged as a chiasm?. I have reason to believe that the same question about Mark can be answered in the affirmative, and seek a…
Does anyone else here use the Fire Bible? The Fire Bible Review Several months ago, our team undertook the task of comparing and reviewing…
What does it means to say that “Daniel wrote/Did not write the book of Daniel?” Are we saying: 1. Daniel did not produce the finish product but could have provided the notes 2. Daniel had nothing at all to do with the prod…
In Numbers 18:19, God says the holy contributions made by the people of Israel belong to Aaron and his descendants forever, as a “covenant of salt”. I’ve never seen this term before. What does it mean?
2 Corinthians 1
[8]For we do not want you to be unaware, brethren, of our affliction which came to us in Asia, that we were burdened excessively, beyond our strength, so that we despaired even of life;
Paul who said
An…