Were there only 7 Churchs in the world at the time the book of Revelations was written?
Where there only 7 Churchs in the world at the time the book of Revelations was written?
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“Made For More: Passion, Zeal, and Worship” with Jentezen Franklin
Watch “Made For More: Passion, Zeal, and Worship” Jentezen Franklin, host of Kingdom Connection & Pastor of Free Chapel. www.jentezenfranklin.org
The Quest for Noah’s Ark
The Quest for Noah’s Ark ∞ Fact or Fiction Part 2 ∞ Symposium Agri New video uploaded by #MysteryofMountArarat. In October 2010 we leave…
Тhat’s the Talmud
?hat’s the Talmud A young man knocks on the door of a great Talmudic scholar. “Rabbi, I wish to study Talmud.” “Do you know…
Theology of the New Testament
Theology of the New Testament [BIBL 338]: The class is offered as a fast track orientation to New Testament theology as part of Lee…
Dr. Ted Hildebrandt, Old Testament Literature, Lecture 11, Intro. to Exodus 1-4
Biblical eLearning (http://biblicalelearning.org) presents: Dr. Ted Hildebrandt on OT Literature Ted has a doctorate from Grace Theological seminary where he taught twenty years before…
Growing a Church or Impacting a Community?
Growing a Church or Impacting a Community? As a pastor, I know the reality of the “business” of the church. Obviously no church can…
What is the “Day of the Lord”?
What is the “day of the lord”? When does it start, end and what is it’s purpose. John Kissinger [01/15/2016 2:18 PM] Ricky Grimsley…
Is there any reason to think that Mark 7:19 has a later addition?
This is Mark 7:19 from the NIV:
For it doesn’t go into their heart but into their stomach, and then out of the body.” (In saying this, Jesus declared all foods clean.)
Every time I see a parenthetical note in an ancient text, I feel like it was a later addition from a scribe.
Does our oldest manuscripts contain that part of the verse? Even it does, is there any reason to believe that it was a later addition?
"Overcome" vs "comprehend" in John 1:5
John 1:5 reads in the ESV:
The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it.
I recently heard the KJV quoted and was struck by the difference:
And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.
In the same vein as the ESV, other translations offer overpowered, extinguished, quenched, defeated. More in line with the KJV, other choices include understood and perceived.
The Greek for reference (NA28):
καὶ τὸ φῶς ἐν τῇ σκοτίᾳ φαίνει, καὶ ἡ σκοτία αὐτὸ οὐ κατέλαβεν.
BDAG provides options for the meaning of καταλαμβάνω carrying both senses (abbreviations expanded):
1. to make something one’s own, win, attain…
2b. seize with hostile intent, overtake, come upon…
4a. learn about something through process of inquiry…
The lexicon mentions this verse in all three of the entries above, but all I could get out of that without having the referenced works at hand is that it seems to be an open question. How should we decide which of these the author intended?
White Supremacy Resolution Causes Chaos with Southern Baptist
Leaders from the Southern Baptist Convention were divided over a resolution affirming the denomination’s opposition to white supremacy and the alt-right during their annual…
