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| PentecostalTheology.com
I was reading Joshua 21:43-45
Joshua 21:43(A)Thus the Lord gave to Israel all the land that he swore to give to their fathers. And they took possession of it, and they settled there. 44 (B)And the Lord gave them rest on every side just as he had sworn to their fathers. (C)Not one of all their enemies had withstood them, for (D)the Lord had given all their enemies into their hands. 45 (E)Not one word of all the good promises that the Lord had made to the house of Israel had failed; all came to pass.
And I needed clarification.
According to Gensis 15:18
Gensis 15:18 On that day the Lord made a covenant with Abram, saying, “To your offspring I give this land, from the river of Egypt to the great river, the river Euphrates,
And Joshua 1:4
Joshua 1:4 From the wilderness and this Lebanon as far as the great river, the river Euphrates, all the land of the Hittites to the Great Sea toward the going down of the sun shall be your territory.
This was the territory that was promised. Now in Joshua 21:43 it claims that the LORD gave all the land that was promised and that they took possession of it, but I thought Israel only took a partial possession of that land at the time? So the common interpretation is that the promise is yet to be fulfilled yet Joshua 21:43-45 claims it was already fulfilled (at the time). Did Israel actually possess all that land at the time the book of Joshua was written?
