ephesians

Is God delivering His wrath right now on us?

Paul writes in Eph 5:6:

for the indignation of God is coming on the Sons of unpersuadableness (loosely translated)

The verb is present tense, middle/passive voice which indicates that these people are already suffering …

Spiritual Warfare (Eph 6:10-21)

Biblical eLearning (http://biblicalelearning.org) presents: Dr. Dan Darko on the Prison Epistles This is the final of thirty lectures on the Prison Epistles by Dr….

Does πολιτείας imply citizenship status with Israel?

ὅτι ἦτε ἐν τῷ καιρῷ ἐκείνῳ χωρὶς Χριστοῦ ἀπηλλοτριωμένοι τῆς πολιτείας
τοῦ Ἰσραὴλ καὶ ξένοι τῶν διαθηκῶν τῆς ἐπαγγελίας ἐλπίδα μὴ ἔχοντες καὶ
ἄθεοι ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ

(Eph. 2:12 TR)

Paul makes a statement that “once” the Gentiles, apart from Christ, have no “citizenship” in Israel, and are “strangers from the covenants of promise”-the benefits of citizenship.

Furthermore, in vs 19, he says,

“ἄρα οὖν οὐκέτι ἐστὲ ξένοι καὶ πάροικοι ἀλλὰ συμπολῖται τῶν ἁγίων καὶ
οἰκεῖοι τοῦ θεοῦ”
implying, that such rights of citizenship are given in Christ.

Is this an accurate rendering of πολιτείας? Or is Paul simply making a rhetorical comparison, which the syntax allows him to do?

,

What scripture is Paul referring to in Ephesians 5:14?

In Ephesians we find that light (religious truth) is described as very powerful as it is able to make dead things living just by shining on them.

But when anything is exposed by the light, it becomes visible, for anything that becomes visible is light. Therefore it says,
“Awake, O sleeper,
and arise from the dead,
and Christ will shine on you.”

(Ephesians 5:13-14, ESV)

However, this is no direct quote of any biblical passage, so I imagine Paul simply puts it in his own words to apply it to the context. But what is ‘it’; what scripture is he paraphrasing here which fully suits the context? Why is it an appropriate verse to quote in this context?

In Ephesians 1:10 , to what or whom does «τὰ πάντα…τὰ…ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς» refer?

In Eph. 1:10, the Greek text according to the Textus Receptus states,

Ιʹ εἰς οἰκονομίαν τοῦ πληρώματος τῶν καιρῶν ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι τὰ πάντα ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ τὰ τε ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς καὶ τὰ ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς TR, 1550

According to my understanding, the idea is that everything in heaven and upon earth is recapitulated (from the lemma ἀνακεφαλαιῶ), that is, brought under a single head, “in Christ.” Although it has a few meanings, I understand “in Christ” here to mean, “by being a Christian and being incorporated into the body of Christ.” That being said, I can understand what “everything that/everyone who is upon the earth” («τὰ πάντα…τὰ ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς») refers to, which would be Christians alive on earth (i.e., the Church militant).

However, to what or whom does the phrase “everything that/everyone who is in heaven” («τὰ πάντα…τὰ…ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς») refer? Do the other verses in the epistle shed any light on its meaning or referent?

Meaning of "equip" in Ephesians 4:12

4:11 And he gave the apostles, the prophets, the evangelists, the
shepherds and teachers, 12 to equip the saints for the work of
ministry, for building up the body of Christ, 13 until we all attain
to the unity of the faith and of the knowledge of the Son of God, to
mature manhood, to the measure of the stature of the fullness of
Christ…

Is there support to interpret “equip” as both affecting the individual believer as well as the local church body? I’m considering the latter interpretation based on the following commentary on 2 Corinthians 13:11:

Katartizo conveys the sense here not of adding something that is
lacking, but of putting things in order, of adjusting things that are
out of adjustment as for example in describing fisherman mending their
nets. Paul was commanding the Corinthian saints to mend their ways, to
straighten themselves out, and restore harmony among themselves.
Spiritual wholeness comes when the church, both collectively and
individually, is in complete conformity to God’s Word. To equip the
saints to do so is the responsibility of the church’s leaders.