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Reading in Matthew 28:1 (ESV):
Now after the Sabbath, toward the dawn of the first day of the week, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary went to see the tomb.
ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς μίαν σαββάτων ἦλθεν Μαριὰμ ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ καὶ ἡ ἄλλη Μαρία θεωρῆσαι τὸν τάφον
But the word here is σαββάτων (sabbaton plural), so one would think it would be Sabbaths? However all major translations have it just "Sabbath" (ESV, KJV, NKJV, NIV, NASB, NET, RSV, ASV, and DBY among them).
Looking closer, this exact form of the word is translated as Sabbath singular in English some places and elsewhere it is referring to the week as a whole. (Mt 28:1, Mk 16:2, Lk 4:16, Lk 24:1, Jn 20:1, Jn 20:19, Acts 13:14, Acts 16:13, Acts 20:7, 1Cor 16:2, Col 2:16)
Why is it being translated this way and how should Matthew 28:1 be translated in light of it?
I’m particularly interested in the parallel verses of Mark 16:2 and Luke 24:1. They describe it as the first day of the week, while Matthew says after the Sabbath. Is it simply a matter of sentence construction?
This question is possibly related in how it was translated, but it is obviously not about the Peshitta text:
