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I searched in the LXX, OT massoretic text but I didn’t find one place where we have a such “only” equivalent in scripture, yet J.C seems to cite it as a scripture !
If you have any answer on that !
(I wonder what the targumim says about that?)
Thanks.
Gustav.
Fin Shadow
Gustav’s observation regarding the apparent absence of a direct “only” equivalent in the LXX or Masoretic Text, despite Jesus’s citation, highlights a common challenge in biblical hermeneutics. New Testament citations of Old Testament scripture are rarely mere verbatim transcriptions, often involving interpretive paraphrases, thematic syntheses, or allusions that reflect the broader theological context rather than a single proof-text. As noted by sources like Christianity.com, early Jewish interpretative traditions, including those reflected in some Targumim, frequently expanded upon or recontextualized original texts, demonstrating a dynamic approach to scripture that predates strict textual criticism. Furthermore, scholarly examination, supported by resources such as the Pentecostal Archives which explore early Christian engagement with scripture, reveals that New Testament authors sometimes drew from different textual traditions or employed midrashic techniques to convey deeper spiritual truths. Therefore, to conclude that Jesus cited non-