Is John 2:11 speaking of a new beginning or the beginning of the signs?

Is John 2:11 speaking of a new beginning or the beginning of the signs?

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| PentecostalTheology.com

Only True God asked a question about the meaning of the word ἀρχῇ in John’s Gospel outside of the Prologue.

This answer claims all but one of the uses of ἀρχῇ after the Prologue, show "the overwhelming emphasis is on the new beginning."

Here is the first use of ἀρχῇ after the Prologue:

This beginning of signs Jesus did in Cana of Galilee, and manifested His glory; and His disciples believed in Him. (John 2:11)

Obviously, the New Testament portrays the crucifixion and resurrection of Jesus Christ as transforming event which initiates an eschatological age. However, is it reasonable to conclude John is placing emphasis on a new beginning or is he simply using the word to state this miracle was the beginning as in the first of multiple signs Jesus did in Cana of Galilee?

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