Click to join the conversation with over 500,000 Pentecostal believers and scholars
| PentecostalTheology.com
” And it shall come to pass, when ye be multiplied and increased in the land, in those days, saith the Lord, they shall say no more, The ark of the covenant of the Lord: neither shall it come to mind: neither shall they remember it; neither shall they visit it; neither shall that be done any more.“ (Jer. 3:16, KJV)
But, the Interlinear translates the Hebrew in the last of that verse as “nor shall it be made anymore”.
That agrees with the OJB which as “neither shall another be fashioned.”
ADDITIONAL:
The Hebrew word “yê·‘ā·śeh” for “shall it be made” is listed as Strong’s Heb. 6213, and the meaning is found in the BDB under “Niphal97” (to do) under 2. (passive of Qual II) a.
“a. be made, of conr. things 1 Kings 10:20 2Chronicles 9:19 (throne), Jeremiah 3:16 (ark), 2 Kings 12:14; Ezekiel 43:18; Exodus 25:31; Numbers 4:36 (P); with accusative mat; Leviticus 2:7. ” Source: Biblehub
Gill’s commentary at Jer. 3:16 includes
“neither shall that be done any more; or, “made any more” (g) the Jews (h) say, the ark was wanting in the second temple, and was never afterwards remade:” Source: Biblehub
Benson Commentary includes:
” The Hebrew, ולא יעשׂה עוד, is literally rendered by the LXX., και ου ποιηθησεται ετι, Nor shall it be made any more. So also the Vulgate, nec fiet ultra. The ark, once lost, was never to be made again, or restored:” Souce: Ibid
Jamieson-Fausset-Brown has:
“done—rather, “neither shall it (the ark) be made (that is, be restored) any more” [Maurer].” Source: Ibid.
The record from the Talmud indicates that the ark of the covenant was not ever in the second temple built after the return from the Babylonian captivity. (1) If the legend that Jeremiah took the ark to a secret cave in the mountains (2 Maccabees) wouldn’t it have been returned to the 2nd temple once the Jews rebuilt the temple after the return from Babylon?
The Hebrew meaning in the OJB appears to be correct, that the ark would never be “made” again. If never to be made again, then doesn’t that imply it was destroyed, and not simply lost? As it was never in the second temple, and as Jer. 3:16 says it would never be fashioned or made again, does that not confirm that it was destroyed when Jerusalem was destroyed in 586 BC?
Note 1: Answers
