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Mark 1:1 (ESV),
The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God…
Mark 15:39 (ESV),
And when the centurion, who stood facing him, saw that in this way he breathed his last, he said, “Truly this man was the Son of God!”
The Greek text of both Mark 1:1 and 15:39, specifically for the phrase, the Son of God, is anarthrous, that is, it does not use the article.
Normally, in English, if a noun is anarthrous, we preface the noun with either "a" or "an" and many Greek nouns in the New Testament, being anarthrous, are so translated, with either "a" or "an" prefacing (e.g. Acts 12:22).
Does the lack of the Greek article in Mark 1:1 and 15:39 as outlined above suggest the phrase Υἱοῦ Θεοῦ (Huiou Theou) should be translated as "a Son of a God" instead of "the Son of God"?
Why or why not?
