How might the NIV justify putting "husband" in John 1:13?

How might the NIV justify putting "husband" in John 1:13?

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John 1:13 "children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband’s will, but born of God" NIV.

Also: NET Bible "a husband’s desire".

Weymouth N.T. "the will of a human father".

I think "husband" or "human father" suggests human physical birth.

However those that "did receive him" were already born in the physical realm. If they were already in the physical realm then denying that they became children of God through a physical act seems redundant. The physical act has already taken place.

The ESV puts "the will of man", stressing that spiritual birth comes not from the will of man but from the will of God.

How might the NIV justify translating "andros" as husband in this verse?

1 Comment

  • Reply July 9, 2025

    Philip Williams

    These are good translations because the contrast is with natural birth in the lineage of Adam!

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