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| PentecostalTheology.com
Why do Isaiah 37 and 2 Kings 19 contain the same verses? Of course, consulting or referring to an older and reliable source of eyewitness information is expected and acceptable, but what is strange is that the writer of 2 Kings 19 has copied Isaiah 37 letter by letter. So why did he/she do that? Isn’t it considered plagiarism? And in a holy book?
