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One poster’s answer to a separate question has "As is clear from Mark 12:29, this is not a statement which is consistent with the Shema. Jesus should say there is one, εἷς true God, or even more properly, there is one, εἷς God. Instead, Jesus abandons the Shema by saying the Father is the μόνον true God. μόνον means only as in alone. At the time Jesus is praying, He is not at the right hand of God; the Son and the Father are temporarily separated, a condition Jesus affirms by calling the Father the alone true God.
Contrary to the Shema, the adjectives μόνον ἀληθινὸν are necessary to show the Son is not in the Father’s presence at that point in time. However, after resurrection, the Son is back at the right hand of God. Therefore, μόνον is no longer necessary to describe God:
Does the context of Mark 12:29 prove that Jesus abandoned the Shema?
Deuteronomy 6:4 ASV
Hear, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah
שְׁמַ֖ע (šə·ma‘) יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל (yiś·rā·’êl) יְהוָ֥ה (Yah·weh) אֱלֹהֵ֖ינוּ (’ĕ·lō·hê·nū) יְהוָ֥ה ׀ (Yah·weh) אֶחָֽד׃ (’e·ḥāḏ)
Mark 12:29 ASV
Jesus answered, The first is, Hear, O Israel; The Lord our God, the Lord is one
Ἰησοῦς (Iēsous) Ἀπεκρίθη (Apekrithē) ἐστίν (estin) Ὅτι (Hoti) Ὅτι (Hoti) Πρώτη (Prōtē) Ἄκουε (Akoue) Ἰσραήλ (Israēl) Κύριος (Kyrios) ἡμῶν (hēmōn) Θεὸς (Theos) ἐστιν (estin) εἷς (heis) Κύριος (Kyrios)
The link below shows Revelation Lad’s answer in full. I specifically asked this question because the 14th and 15th paragraph of his answer needed to be clarified.
