Does "Jesus has come in the flesh" in 1 John 4:2 imply a fleshless pre-existence?

Does "Jesus has come in the flesh" in 1 John 4:2 imply a fleshless pre-existence?

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1 John 4:2 (ESV):

2 By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God,

When I read this verse, my immediate impression is that of the incarnation: that Jesus already existed in a fleshless form before but then decided to take on human flesh at the moment of his incarnation (hence "he came in the flesh" -> from no flesh to in the flesh). Does everyone get the same impression while reading this verse?

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