In Acts 24:15, how should μέλλειν ἔσεσθαι be rendered?

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It is generally translated as "going to be", with Young’s Literal Translation being the Minority Report:

https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/nwt/books/acts/24/#v44024015

[Act 24:15 YLT] (15) having hope toward God, which they themselves also wait for, [that] there is about to be a rising again of the dead, both of righteous and unrighteous;

Elsewhere in Acts, Luke uses the phrase twice, both with the meaning "about to be":

[Act 11:28 YLT] (28) and one of them, by name Agabus, having stood up, did signify through the Spirit a great dearth is about to be throughout all the world — which also came to pass in the time of Claudius Caesar —

[Act 27:10 YLT] (10) saying to them, ‘Men, I perceive that with hurt, and much damage, not only of the lading and of the ship, but also of our lives — the voyage is about to be;’

What in either the grammar or the context that Paul decided to tip off his audience to an event thousands of years in the future, and not in their own lifetime?

As in this phrase, μέλλω is coupled with an infinitive, the relevant part of BDAG appears to be this (bolding is mine):

① to take place at a future point of time and so to be subsequent to
another event, be about to, used w. an inf. foll. ⓐ only rarely w. the
fut. inf., w. which it is regularly used in ancient Gk. (Hom. et al.),
since in colloquial usage the fut. inf. and ptc. were gradually
disappearing and being replaced by combinations with μέλλω (B-D-F
§338, 3; 350; s. Rob. 882; 889). W. the fut. inf. μ. denotes certainty
that an event will occur in the future μ. ἔσεσθαι (SIG 914, 10 μέλλει
ἔσεσθαι; 247 I, 74 ἔμελλε … [δώσε]ιν; Jos., Ant. 13, 322; Mel., P. 57,
415) will certainly take place or be Ac 11:28; 24:15; 27:10; 1 Cl
43:6; cp. Dg 8:2.

Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., Bauer, W., & Gingrich, F. W. (2000). A
Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian
literature (3rd ed., p. 627). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.

Do BDAG’s appeals to the three passages in Acts actually amount to eisegesis and special pleading? I mean, don’t they actually read perfectly comfortably as "is about to be" as "will certainly be"? (I note that the translations generally omit "will certainly" as well, and translate it as a simple future).