Luke 1:20 why plural demonstrative
Why “these things” in Lk 1:20 when only the birth of John the Baptist and not the “things” he would do seems sufficient for Zacharias’ voice to return?
Why “these things” in Lk 1:20 when only the birth of John the Baptist and not the “things” he would do seems sufficient for Zacharias’ voice to return?
Elohim is recognized as being in plural form when talking about false gods…
However when talking about the Hebrew God, I have read that Elohim is thought to be referring to God in singular form. Is this correct?
Consider Genesis 1:26
Let …
I’m trying to understand the use of the city name Jerusalem in the New Testament. In some places, it appears as a proper noun, singular, feminine (Strongs 2419), And then in other places, it appears with neuter plural declension (Strongs …
I am aware of singular verbs with plural subjects in the third person, masculine, singular. Such as Exodus 4:29, but I am wondering if there is a 1cs that has a plural subject?
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Exodus 4:29 Moses and Aa…
But in fact Christ has been raised from the dead, the firstfruits[ἀπαρχή] of those who have fallen asleep.
-1 Corinthians 15:20
The ἀπαρχή here is in the singular form and seems to clearly be in reference to the singular Christ, however,…
# **Theological confusion concerning the Trinity:** *”Elohim is plural but has absolutely nothing to do with trinity… It means powerful, those who God made…