Response To Reviews Of, In Jesus Name
Pneuma 31 (2009) 283-289 Response to Reviews of, In Jesus’ Name David Reed Wycliff e College, Toronto, Ontario M5S 1H7, Canada [email protected] Abstract This…
Pneuma 31 (2009) 283-289 Response to Reviews of, In Jesus’ Name David Reed Wycliff e College, Toronto, Ontario M5S 1H7, Canada [email protected] Abstract This…
Luke 19:22 And he saith unto him, Out of thine own mouth will I judge thee, thou wicked servant. Thou knewest that I was an austere man, taking up that I laid not down, and reaping that I did not sow:
Evil (πονηρός, sc#4190) is used 76x’…
The attacks, Iran says, were retaliation for the killing of a top Revolutionary Guards commander in Baghdad.
And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell. Matthew 10:28 KJV
and
Who in the days of his flesh, when he had offered up prayers and su…
In John 1:13 does it grammatically follow that they were born by the will of God, even though the word will θεληματος is omitted or is the word will omitted on the grounds that it’s not the will of God that they are born of but (born) of G…
1 John 3:16 KJB
Hereby perceive we the love of God, because he laid down his life for us: and we ought to lay down our lives for the brethren.
◄Exponential Increase of Sores PAIN; 1st – 5th Bowls of Wrath!► ➥ The Pain of Sores received in the 1st Vial Increases & Intensifies…
Related:
– The Correct Research Methodology To Substantiate If an Expression is an Idiom?
– In the early church, was the Last Supper Considered a Passover Feast?
– The meaning of παρασκευή (‘day of preparation’)
– Luke 22:16 – Did Jesus say he was not going to eat THAT Passover?
– Do Idioms Used in the Crucifixion Narrative Resolve the “3 Day/3 Night” Objections?
Is “day of” an idiomatic expression, meaning “general time”?
Why does Luke say the day of the Passover came, when it had not?
Is there any historical evidence, or grammatical rules, that may suggest that this phrase was often used imprecisely, idiomatically?
Is it possible that: “It’s the Feast of Passover!” – may have have been understood the same way that we understand: “It’s Christmas Time!”, (a generalization, not necessarily the actual day);
Are Verb Tenses Significant? (“Then came:“, Aorist, Imperfect, etc.)
Are there any historical texts, that either confirm or refute this argument?
NASB, Luke 22:1 – Now the Feast of Unleavened Bread, which is called the Passover, was approaching.
Passover Came:
NASB, Luke 22:7 – Then came, (Ἦλθεν, Aorist Tense) the day
But It Had Not, Yet? :
NASB, Luke 23:17 – Now [Pilate] was obliged to release to them (at / κατὰ) the feast one prisoner.
John 19:31 – Then the Jews, because it was, (Imperfect Tense) the day of preparation, … for a Great Day was that Sabbath.
Homilies on Matthew (Chrysostom), Homily 81 – And this one calls the day before the feast of unleavened bread, Luke 22:7 speaking of the time when they came to Him, and another says on this wise, Then came the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed; by the word came, meaning this, it was near, it was at the doors, making mention plainly of that evening. For they began with the evening, wherefore also each adds, when the passover was killed.
Note: Although Augustine, (354-439) cited Chrysostom as an authority – I feel that what Chrysostom, (349-407) wrote is not conclusive because those works were not contemporaneous with the New Testament.
Most translations of Matthew 28:19 begin with:
“Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them …
What "of" means here is ambiguous:
All people from all nations should be baptized. (Proselytize)
A few peopl…
Iranian state television has said Tehran has launched “tens” of surface-to-surface missiles at Iraq’s Ain Assad air base housing US troops. More to follow.
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