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Jeremiah 31:32
Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake,
The majority of references I’ve come across assume the covenant they broke is the covenant referenced here in Jeremiah 31:32 (the Mosaic Covenant).
I’m not sure this assumption is correct.
According to my reasoning, Abraham obtained righteousness by faith, but the Mosaic covenant had righteousness via Law. Why change, other than the Israelites’ lacked faith (trust in God), so the ‘agreement’ had to change in order for God to be able to ‘work’ for them?
Is my reasoning sound?
