How is the Greek to be understood with regards to ‘only’ at Mark 13:32’s final clause, "but only the Father"?

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Mark 13:32’s is

"No one knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven,
nor the Son, but only the Father." (Berean Standard Bible)

The use of ‘only’ in the final clause is typical. Some add ‘alone’ in italics, as with the NASB.

"But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in
heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone."

Yet, the KJB doesn’t include ‘alone’ or ‘only’. It is simply

"But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which
are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father."

Young’s Literal has it as

"And concerning that day and the hour no one hath known — not even
the messengers who are in the heaven, not even the Son — except the
Father."

What can we say about the appropriateness of adding ‘only’ or ‘alone’ or ‘except’ here? How strongly is it motivated by the Greek text? What are arguments for or against including it?