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17 For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith to faith; as it is written, “But the righteous man shall live by faith.” NASB, ©1995
ΙΖʹ δικαιοσύνη γὰρ θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ ἀποκαλύπτεται ἐκ πίστεως εἰς πίστιν, καθὼς γέγραπται· ὁ δὲ δίκαιος ἐκ πίστεως ζήσεται. NA28, ©2012
When I read “from faith to faith,” I thought it was a temporal statement (i.e. from law to grace—the faith once delivered). But I have read three commentaries on Romans (not just for this question but just in general because it is my favorite epistle), and no one so far has mentioned that it is a temporal statement. Am I totally off the mark? Could there be no transitional temporal meaning to the phrase “from faith to faith?”