In light of Exodus 22:16-17, does a man who seduces a virgin become her husband ipso facto?

Click to join the conversation with over 500,000 Pentecostal believers and scholars

My question was inspired by this, which was closed for being “off-topic” yet nevertheless contained some interesting food for thought.

Consider the following passage from Exodus.

(Exodus 22:16-17, DRB) If a man seduce a virgin not yet espoused, and lie with her: he shall endow her, and have her to wife. If the maid’s father will not give her to him, he shall give money according to the dowry, which virgins are wont to receive.

Now, the author of the linked question proposed a theory (which I personally think is false but clever). He postulated that, when two unmarried people have s-x (not in the context of rape), that very act creates a bond of marriage between them ipso facto. According to his theory, the man in Exodus 22:16-17 automatically becomes the virgin’s husband, and she becomes his wife, and the two are married without any ceremony.

Notice that the above passage from Exodus doesn’t mention any sin offering for the action, nor a fine (unless you count the dowry as a fine, but that seems like a bit of a stretch.) Additionally, the fact that the man is obligated to pay a dowry would seem to support OP’s theory that the two are now married.

So, is his theory true or false? If its true, that would seem to be incompatible with the New Testament, which says that “Neither fornicators, nor idolators, nor adulterers . . . will inherit the kingdom of God.” On the other hand, if his theory is false, why does the passage from Exodus mention no sin offering or fine for a man lying with a virgin?