bible

Then the lawless one will be revealed

Then the lawless one will be revealed

2 Thessalonians 2:3-11 Updated American standard Version (UASV) The Man of Lawlessness 2 Now we request you, brothers, with regard to the coming[4] of our Lord Jesus…

PERRY STONE STUDY BIBLE

PERRY STONE STUDY BIBLE: As you may be aware, I have been stirred in my spirit to produce a Perry Stone Hebraic/Prophetic Study Bible, gleaning…

John 12:3 why would Mary wipe Jesus’ feet with her hair?

John 12:3 Mary then took a pound of very costly perfume of pure nard, and anointed the feet of Jesus and wiped His feet with her hair; and the house was filled with the fragrance of the perfume.

I understand the significance of Mary letting her hair down – Jewish women seldom ever did this. What I don’t get is why she used her hair to wipe his feet. Hair is not absorbent nor is it useful for wiping anything.
Why wouldn’t she use her dress or scarf?
QUESTION: Why hair and not the cloth of her dress, even her forearm would have been more useful for this task if a towel was not available.

The study of the end times

The study of the end times is often avoided or heavily debated. On one side, there is a lack of understanding, and this causes…

Genesis 19:24, Two Yahwehs?

How is Genesis 19:24 best translated?

Some translations translate it by apparently saying there are two Yahweh(s) involved in the act:

ESV: Then the LORD rained on Sodom and Gomorrah sulfur and fire from the LORD out of …

Does Mark’s and Matthew’s use of Aramaic indicate Jesus spoke more than one language?

Mark and Matthew record Jesus speaking Aramiac from the cross:

And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, “Eloi, Eloi, lema sabachthani?” which means, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” (Mark 15:34 ESV)

And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, “Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?” that is, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” (Matthew 27:46 ESV)

All other times they record Jesus words using the Greek language. It is accepted that Aramaic was the language Jesus spoke. However, it is obvious that many, if not all of the Apostles were able to communicate in both Aramaic and Greek (and probably knew Latin). So it seems likely that Jesus also was able to speak in both Aramaic and Greek.

Mark and Matthew are purposeful to make the point that when Jesus quoted Psalm 22 He used Aramaic. Consequently they are purposeful to exclude any possible confusion or claim that Jesus quoted the Greek translation of the Psalm, which in the Septuagint is significantly different at that point: ὁ θεὸς ὁ θεός μου πρόσχες μοι (O God, my God, take heed to me). Quoting the Greek lacks the personal pronoun at the beginning and would also have Jesus asking God to take heed of Him, something the Aramaic precludes.

While the use of the Aramaic quotation can be seen as purposeful to ensure Jesus correctly quotes the Psalm, it also gives reason to question the assertion that all of the other sayings of Jesus were exclusively spoken in Aramaic and translated into Greek.

What is the evidence Jesus spoke exclusively in Aramaic and never used the Greek language?

In Revelation 19:16, of which kings is Jesus king?

KJV Rev_19:16 And he hath on his vesture and on his thigh a name written,
KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS.

We know that Jesus is the Christ/son of David and thus king of the Jews, or at least will be in the 1000 year reign. When is or will he be king of other kings? Is he or is he to be one king over many kingdoms with Jesus ruling over the other kings? Or is the idea that the nations are “rolled into” Israel?:

YLT Rev 11:15 And the seventh messenger did sound, and there came great
voices in the heaven, saying, `The kingdoms of the world did become
those of our Lord and of His Christ, and he shall reign to the ages of
the ages!’

In other words, are Revelation 19:16 and 11:15 describing a hegemony?

Closely Related:

Who are the “kings of the earth”?