Bible prophecy that ‘proves’ solar eclipse was a sign A VERSE in the Bible proves that the end of the world is nigh on…
In Exodus 3:18 Moses is commanded to gather the Israelite elders, go to Phara0h and say “יְהוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֤י הָֽעִבְרִיִּים֙ נִקְרָ֣ה עָלֵ֔ינוּ וְעַתָּ֗ה נֵֽלֲכָה־נָּ֞א דֶּ֣רֶךְ שְׁלֹ֤שֶׁת יָמִים֙ בַּמִּדְבָּ֔ר וְנִזְבְּחָ֖ה לַֽיהוָ֥ה אֱלֹהֵֽינוּ” “The Lord, the God of the Hebrews appeared to us and now please let us go a journey of three days into the wilderness and we will slaughter to the Lord, our God.”
But in Exodus 5:1, Moses changes the words when talking to Pharaoh and says “כֹּֽה־אָמַ֤ר יְהוָה֙ אֱלֹהֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל שַׁלַּח֙ אֶת־עַמִּ֔י וְיָחֹ֥גּוּ לִ֖י בַּמִּדְבָּֽר” “So said the Lord, God of Israel, ‘send out my nation and they will celebrate to me in the wilderness.'” Pharoah responds (Exodus 5:2) by claiming ignorance of the Lord, saying “מִ֤י יְהוָה֙ אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶשְׁמַ֣ע בְּקֹל֔וֹ לְשַׁלַּ֖ח אֶת־יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל לֹ֤א יָדַ֙עְתִּי֙ אֶת־יְהוָ֔ה וְגַ֥ם אֶת־יִשְׂרָאֵ֖ל לֹ֥א אֲשַׁלֵּֽחַ” “who is the Lord that I should listen to his voice to send out Israel; I don’t know the Lord and also Israel I will not send out.”
In the very next verse however, Moses reverts back to the message that God had told him to use and says “אֱלֹהֵ֥י הָעִבְרִ֖ים נִקְרָ֣א עָלֵ֑ינוּ נֵ֣לֲכָה נָּ֡א דֶּרֶךְ֩ שְׁלֹ֨שֶׁת יָמִ֜ים בַּמִּדְבָּ֗ר וְנִזְבְּחָה֙ לַֽיהוָ֣ה אֱלֹהֵ֔ינוּ” “the God of the Hebrews appeared to us and now please let us go a journey of three days into the wilderness and we will slaughter to the Lord, our God.” This time Pharaoh doesn’t deny any knowledge of God but instead accuses Moses and Aaron of distracting the Israelites from their task and being lazy.
The simple reading of the text implies that Pharaoh did not know who the God of the Israelites was but did know who the God of the Hebrews was. And unlike the God of the Israelites, Pharaoh had at least some level of respect for the God of the Hebrews.
Is is possible that Pharaoh did not know that the God of the Israelites was the same as the God of the Hebrews? Is this evidence that the term Israelite and Hebrew were not viewed are referencing the same people (i.e. that Israelites were a subset of Hebrews)?
And if there was a really a difference between the terms, why did Moses change God’s message?
PRAISE AND WORSHIP: SCRIPTURE READING: Acts 2 CONFESSION: Luke 4:18 PRAYER POINTS: 1. Every wicked grip upon my life, loose your hold, in the…
In James chapter 4, the author is rebuking the letter’s recipients for their current behaviour. As the text progresses, he gradually strengthens his language about this until he’s telling them to mourn and weep, to change their laughter and joy for mourning and gloom.
…but he gives more grace. Therefore it says, “God opposes the proud, but gives grace to the humble.” Submit yourselves therefore to God. Resist the devil, and he will flee from you. Draw near to God, and he will draw near to you. Cleanse your hands, you sinners, and purify your hearts, you double-minded. Be wretched and mourn and weep. Let your laughter be turned to mourning and your joy to gloom. Humble yourselves before the Lord, and he will exalt you.
All of this seems more extreme than attitudes to repentance I’m aware of elsewhere in the New Testament – is the author’s instruction intended to be taken literally by its audience, or are these phrases meant to be interpreted figuratively?
I’m excited about this one! The Jewish Annotated New Testament Although major New Testament figures–Jesus and Paul, Peter and James, Jesus’ mother Mary and…
Many commentators note that the lineage of Cain in Genesis 4 is followed by a genealogy of Seth in Genesis 5 and compare the two lines, treating Cain’s line as godless and Seth’s line as godly. This particularly appears, for …
1. Question – Greek Grammar, the Subjunctive and ὅταν:
In 1 Corinthians 13:10 – Will “The Perfect” actually come to everyone – all at the same time?
Or, does the underlying Greek indicate a subjective experience? Could it be a subjective experience, (like dying and going to heaven, or Spiritual Maturity)?
Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance, ὅταν – as long as, whenever; From hote and an; whenever (implying hypothesis or more or less uncertainty); also causatively (conjunctionally) inasmuch as — as long (soon) as, that, + till, when(-soever), while.
3. The Text
1 Corinthians 13:12 – “… presently, I know partially, and then I will intimately know, just fully just as I also have been fully known.”
– 1 Corinthians 13:10 – What does Paul mean by “Completeness”?
– 1 Corinthians 13:10 – What does “The Perfect” Refer to?
– 1 Corinthians 13:10 – What Will Cease when “The Perfect” Comes?
– 1 Corinthians 13:8 – What is the Significance of the Intransitive verb “παύσονται”?
– 1 Corinthians 13:9-10 – What Does “ἐκ μέρους” Mean?
– 1 Corinthians 13:9 – What does “Out From” Mean?
Consider the following passage:
Isaiah 55:13 KJV Instead of the thorn shall come up the fir tree, and instead of the brier shall come up the myrtle tree: and it shall be to the LORD for a name, for an everlasting sign tha…
This is Mark 7:19 from the NIV:
For it doesn’t go into their heart but into their stomach, and then out of the body.” (In saying this, Jesus declared all foods clean.)
Every time I see a parenthetical note in an ancient text, I feel like it was a later addition from a scribe.
Does our oldest manuscripts contain that part of the verse? Even it does, is there any reason to believe that it was a later addition?
In Genesis 4:19-22, we read a short account of some of Cain’s decendents:
Lamech married two women, one named Adah and the other Zillah. Adah gave birth to Jabal; he was the father of those who live in tents and raise livestock. His brother’s name was Jubal; he was the father of all who play stringed instruments and pipes. Zillah also had a son, Tubal-Cain, who forged all kinds of tools out of bronze and iron. Tubal-Cain’s sister was Naamah.
It’s noticeable right away that this line is very inventive. They’re seemingly credited for:
- Nomadic herding
- Stringed instruments and pipes
- Bronze and iron working
Possibly also the line is the first to build a city (Cain v. 17) and take two wives (Lamech, v. 19).
Given that the line starts with Cain who murdered his brother and who lives under a curse, and ends in this section with Lamech who is also a murderer, what is the author’s purpose in noting the inventions that came from Cain and his decendents? Is the author trying to somehow ameliorate their reputation? Or perhaps tarnish the their inventions by linking them to their character? Simply recording the history of a few items? Or something else?
This question was inspired by a similar question about the Gospel of John: Is the Gospel of John arranged as a chiasm?. I have reason to believe that the same question about Mark can be answered in the affirmative, and seek a…