Why judgement during Josiah’s reign?
Why does God send judgment Words during the reign of Josiah through Zephaniah, seeing that he was bringing about reformations?
Why
Why did the angel tell Hagar to return to her mistress after being illtreated in Genesis 16?
After being mistreated by her mistress Sarah the slave woman Hagar escapes to Beer-lahai roi which is between Kadesh and Bered
Genessis 16:6 NASB
6 But Abram said to Sarai, “Look, your slave woman is in your [e]power; do to her what is goo…
Why did Joseph’s brothers say that they were questioned by Joseph as mentioned in Genesis 43:7?
Genesis 43:7
They replied, “The man questioned us carefully about ourselves and our kindred, saying, ‘Is your father still alive? Do you have another brother?’
When were these questions asked? I didn’t come across these questions in Gene…
Why is Elohim translated as God rather than gods in Genesis 1:1?
I mean Elohim is a plural form of God. So the correct translation would be gods.
Now, perhaps the word elohim is followed by singular words and hence the word Elohim must mean plural.
So what? That doesn’t change the fact that elohim is …
Why do Isaiah 37 and 2 Kings 19 contain the same verses?
If you read Isaiah 37 and compare it with 2 Kings 19, you will notice that these verses are the exact same.
How is it possible or why is it that these verses are identical?
Isaiah 37
2 Kings 19
Why were there negative consequences for becoming "like God" when God had already made mankind in the image of himself?
I am of the Protestant church and seeking some understanding of a concept from the book of Genesis. I will try to summarize this as succinctly as I can.
Genesis 1:27, states that God created mankind in His own image:
So God created mankin…
Why does God send an evil spirit in Judges 9:23?
It seems strange to me as a young Christian for a few reasons. When God wills the death of a man, he often strengthens the hand of their enemies, sometimes sends angels to cut them down, occassionaly he kills directly through terrible mira…
Why in 1 Corinthians 7:15 Paul uses the perfect tense along the present tense?
1 Corinthians 7:15 New American Standard Bible (NASB)
15 Yet if the unbelieving one leaves, let him leave; the brother or the sister is not under bondage in such cases, but God has called [a]us [b]to peace.
Footnotes:
a. One early ms read…
Why does The Holy Spirit snatch Philip away immediately after Philip shares The Gospel with the Ethiopian Bureaucrat Eunuch Government Official?
Acts 8:34-40
New American Standard Bible 1995
34 The eunuch answered Philip and said, “Please tell me, of whom does the prophet say this? Of himself or of someone else?” 35 Then Philip opened his mouth, and beginning from this Scripture h…
Why is Hosea 14:2 changed in some translations?
I’ve read that in Hosea 14:2, the reference to sacrificial bulls is removed and the word פָרִ֖ים is mistranslated as "fruit". Why is this?
https://biblehub.com/hosea/14-2.htm#lexicon
Why did Ahimaaz the son of Zadok run ahead of the Cushite to Only provide good news about War Victory, & Not the Bad News about Absalom’s death?
(2 Samuel 18:19-33) (New American Standard Bible 1995 ) 19 Then
Ahimaaz the son of Zadok said, “Please let me run and bring the king
news that the Lord has freed him from the hand of his enemies.” 20
But Joab said to him, “You are not the…
Why do the Renaissance era English Bible translations prefer the word "devils" rather than "demons"?
Tyndale Bible, Geneva Bible, King James Bible, and Douay Rheims Bible (all from the same era) prefer to use the word "devils" (or an earlier variation such as "deuils"). The English word "demons" was never us…