How should "to whom the word of God came" in John 10:35 be understood?
John 10:35 Literal Standard Version
If He called them gods to whom the word of God came (and the Writing
is not able to be broken),
To whom did the word of God come?
“whom
KJV – Jeremiah 34:16 why some KJV says "whom ye" and some KJV says "whom he"?
From BibleHub: "whom ye"
From BibleDotCom: "whom he"
From KJV 1611 on Amazon: "whom ye"
From KJV 1611 on Bible Protector: "whom ye"
From Wikipedia (wikisource): "whom he"
I also checked New…