revelation

Revelation 21:13-14

Okay I found a set of verses in the book of Revelation from Jesus that poses a question to the oneness people.Revelation 21:13-14 Jesus…

Does Revelation 22:5 contradict 1 Corinthians 15:28?

It appears that “so that God may be all in all” is saying “so that God alone will rule and God will rule alone”:

1Co 15:28 ISV But when everything has been put under him, then the
Son himself will also become subject t…

Are there Inconsistent translations of Revelation 13:10?

KJV has for Revelation 13:10

He that leadeth into captivity shall go into captivity: he that
killeth with the sword must be killed with the sword. Here is the
patience and the faith of the saints.

The passage has a justice/retribution
moral similar to that of Mt 26:52.

In NIV the moral is instead about suffering patiently and
accepting one’s fate.

If anyone is to go into captivity,
into captivity they will go.
If anyone is to be killed with the sword,
with the sword they will be killed.

Two other translations (Vulgate and NEG1979) have a “mixed”
meaning: capturing has the patience reading, and killing has
the retributive reading.

Qui in captivitatem in captivitatem vadit qui in gladio occiderit
oportet eum gladio occidi hic est patientia et fidessanctorum

Si quelqu’un est destiné à la captivité, il ira en captivité; si
quelqu’un tue par l’épée, il faut qu’il soit tué par l’épée. C’est ici
la persévérance et la foi des saints.

Is the original Greek ambiguous about the proper meaning, or are
the translators just taking liberties?

Who or what will the saints reign over in Revelation?

Thoughout Revelation, it is said that “they [the saints] will reign.”

For example:

Blessed and holy is the one who takes part in the first resurrection.
The second death has no power over them, but they will be priest…

Translating κυριακὸν and κυριακῇ as an adjective (dominical) instead of indicating belonging

A translation of the bible in Spanish (La Biblia Textual – 3ra Edición) translates:

κυριακὸν δεῖπνον = cena dominical (dominical supper) — 1 Corinthians 11:20

and

κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ = día dominical (dominical day) — Revelation 1:10

A marginal note says that these words must be translated as an adjective instead of indicating belonging.

Nevertheless, most of the translations translate these verses as “Lord’s supper” and “Lord’s day”, respectively. Although the Lord’s day is traditionally identified as Sunday, did Paul have in mind the day Sunday on 1 Corinthians 11:20? Is it plausible to translate κυριακὸν and κυριακῇ as an adjective (dominical) instead of indicating belonging?