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Question:

If ‘Holy’, (ἅγιος at Biblehub.com, and at logeion.uchicago.edu), is interpreted as ‘separated unto’, ‘consecrated’, ‘dedicated to’, or ‘sacred’, then in what sense can God be considered Holy?

Is this a contradiction if God is not actually ‘separated’ or ‘apart from’?

NKJV, Ephesians 4:6 – one God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in [you] all.

What sense of the word ‘holy’ would apply to both God and people?

And you shall be holy to Me, for I the Lord am holy, and have separated you from the peoples, that you should be Mine. (Leviticus 20:26 NKJV)

For I am the Lord who brings you up out of the land of Egypt, to be your God. You shall therefore be holy, for I am holy. (Leviticus 11:45 NKJV)

because it is written, “Be holy, for I am holy.” (1 Peter 1:16 NKJV)

Traditional Interpretations:

Something that is holy can also be impure:

NKJV: Ezekiel 43:7 – And the house of Israel will not again defile My holy name…

NKJV: Exodus 30:35 – You shall make of these an incense, a compound according to the art of the perfumer, salted, pure, (טָה֥וֹר), and holy, (קֹֽדֶשׁ).

Holiness seems to mean something distinctly different from "Righteous":

NKJV, Revelation 22:11 – He who is unjust, let him be unjust still; he who is filthy, let him be filthy still; he who is righteous, let him be righteous, (δικαιοσύνην) still; he who is holy, let him be holy, (ἁγιασθήτω) still.”

The traditional presupposition is that ‘holiness’ is synonymous with ‘righteous, (lawful)’, and ‘pure, (clean)’. But, these words seem to have very different purposes and meanings in Scripture, (otherwise the authors wouldn’t use them in the same contexts and even sentences).