First Gentile Convert

Cornelius in Acts chapter 10 is generally cited as the first Gentile convert to Christianity. What then is the status of the Ethiopian eunuch baptised by Philip in chapter 8? Was he a Jew in the service of Candice? If so w…

TV Evangelists Study BIBLES

Jimmy Swaggart Study Bible Read More PERRY STONE STUDY BIBLE PERRY STONE STUDY BIBLE: As you may be aware, I have been stirred in my…

Who is the "True Companion" in Philippians 4:3?

The Epistle of Paul to the Philippians is written in the second person plural, except for the following verse.

Philippians 4:3 (NASB)
3 Indeed, true companion, I ask you also to help these women who have shared my struggle in the cause of the gospel, together with Clement also and the rest of my fellow workers, whose names are in the book of life.

This verse appears to be parenthetical, because here we find the Greek word, σύ, which is the second person singular; that is, in the following verse he reverts to the second person plural of address for the remainder of the epistle.

To whom then was Paul referring as the “True Companion” in this verse, if we understand that the epistle was supposed to be addressed to “all the saints in Christ Jesus who are in Philippi” in general (Phil 1:1)?

Was this perhaps some literary device to address each individual in the Philippian Church to take responsibility in helping Euodia and Syntyche to live in harmony?

In other words, was Paul aware of the Bystander Effect (or Genovese Syndrome) in the First Century? The thesis avers that larger numbers of people decrease the likelihood that any one person in particular will step forward to help those in distress; responsibility to help thus remains diffused among the large number of people. That is, the individual must be addressed in order to prompt the response to assist those needing help.

In this context was the “True Companion” therefore each and every believer in Philippi (thus Paul’s attempt to mitigate the “Bystander Effect”), or was perhaps the “True Companion” actually some particular individual person in Philippi? Thoughts?

“You will have delivered your soul” in Ezekiel 3

I’m trying to understand the “Watchman” passage in Ezekiel 3:16-21 (largely repeated in 33:1-9). Excerpting from 3:18-19 (ESV):

If….you give him no warning….in order to save his life (ləḥayyōtô), that wicked person shall die for his iniquity, but his blood I will require at your hand (dāmô mîyyādəkā ʾăbaqqēš).

But if you warn the wicked, and he does not turn from his wickedness….he shall die (yāmût) for his iniquity, but you will have delivered your soul (ʾet–napšəkā hiṣṣaltā).

I’m trying to determine whether “deliver your soul” means anything different from “save [your] life”. For some reason, each time the wicked man turns from his wickedness he “saves his life”, but the watchman, by his obedience, “delivers [his] soul”.

In the logic of the contingencies, these two don’t seem to be exactly interchangeable. They have different opposites:

  • “save his life” ↔ “die”, whereas
  • “deliver his soul” ↔ “his blood I will require…” .

The last I understand (mostly from looking at the more dynamic translations) to mean “I will hold you responsible for his death”. This makes me wonder whether “deliver his soul” actually means “not be held responsible [for another’s death]”.

Does “deliver your soul” mean anything different from “save your life”?

Is God delivering His wrath right now on us?

Paul writes in Eph 5:6:

for the indignation of God is coming on the Sons of unpersuadableness (loosely translated)

The verb is present tense, middle/passive voice which indicates that these people are already suffering …